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I've seen it mentioned in various places that its thought that the French Revolutions and the Napoleonic Wars, and the paranoia amongst the British ruling classes about a revolution, set back the development of British liberties by fifty years. If they're right, we might have got the 1837 Reform Act in 1807.

I did have a brief TL with an abortive American Revolution, which leads to no wars of revolution. That, combined with giving Americans the vote leads to an extension of the vote to the middle classes in the 1790s. Thats a bit mental, but what do we think?
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