No France until the mid-1800's

Question: How would it be different if there was no "unified" France until the early-to-mid 1800's, similar to the situation in Italy OTL? Would the POD have to be as early as the death of Charles I OTL? Because to me this seems like a situation with a role reversal between France and Germany in the Middle Ages.
 
The latest plausible POD I could see would be Henry V of England living a bit longer than OTL and inheriting the throne of France. Then when he dies his insane son isn't strong enough to hold the Kingdom together, and various nobles start refusing to recognise his authority. England manages to hold onto some of the French lands, mostly in the north around Paris, but most of the south and east ends up splitting off under the rule of independent Dukes.
 
If France doesn't exist, I don't think Germany or Italy would ever be created either. And Spain would probably also split into smaller countries.
 
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