A simple question: WI the concept of courtly love had never arisen in 11th century France?
The entire modern (western) concept of romantic love descends from this. What differences?
-- Is it possible that the cultural construct of romantic love was a factor in the rise of Europe? No, I'm perfectly serious. Or anyway, I think it's at least remotely plausible. Lots of indirect effects... raising the status of wome, and so allowing half the population more input into creativity and decision making than they got anywere else, and also diffusing property ownership and political power a wee bit more. And building a conflict between the Real and the Ideal right into every adolescent's world-view, with everything that implies.
Even if you don't buy into that -- and you certainly don't have to! -- there'd be large effects on both high and popular culture.
Thoughts?
Doug M.