napoleon support Spanish against american revolts

what happens if napoleon chose not to reestablish slavery in Haiti(no Haiti revolt) and send instead troops to south and central america to support his Spanish allies to stop the revolts in exchange for naval and trade rights.
 
What is going to happen is that the Royal Navy is going to send the Armée expéditionnaire de l'Amérique espagnole to the bottom of the sea, if it can even leave the port.


The following facts must be taken into account:

  • The revolts in Spanish America started BECAUSE of Napoleon. Specifically, his replacement of the Bourbons by his brother Joseph. Both the peninsular Spaniards and the inhabitants of the spanish colonies in America rejected this imposition, forming alternative authorities or "juntas" to "preserve the rights of Don Fernando VII". The uncertainty about which was the legitimate government of Spain, the fact that practically every peninsular province appointed its own junta, and that subsequent governments formed by the union of said Juntas (Junta Central, Regencia) were considered unrepresentative by the Spanish Americans, and seemed to be about to be crushed by the French boot, motivated the Spanish Americans (or criollos) to name their own juntas that replaced spanish colonial rule. These "juntas" of autonomous self-government were the seed and tool of the independence movements. Any Napoleonic force sent to the Americas to restore obedience to the Crown (that is, to King José Bonaparte) will be received in a hostile manner by both royalists and patriots.
  • Before the abdications of Bayonne there is no rebellion that motivates the sending of peninsular troops, much less French, for the restoration of colonial rule.
  • If Napoleon was succesful in Haiti, then his priority in the Americas would be the still existing French Colonial Empire (Haiti and Louisiana), not the Spanish colonies.
  • Even if Napoleon was successful in Haiti, he would still not have a fleet for any expedition to the New World by the time of the revolts, because the Franco-Spanish fleet was destroyed in Trafalgar.
Ergo, the point of divergence offered is insufficient. There is no reason for Napoleon to send forces to South America, and even if he wanted, he doesn´t have the resources to do so successfully. Even if he had, it would not be to help the Spaniards, because by the time of the rebellions they were no longer his allies, but, in the best of cases, puppets who were resisting submission. OTL, by the time of the first declarations of independence in Spanish America, Napoleon´s government came to offer its support to them, as a way to weaken the Spaniards (who had allied with the British), while the peninsular ulcer was being "resolved".
 
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what happens if napoleon chose not to reestablish slavery in Haiti(no Haiti revolt) and send instead troops to south and central america to support his Spanish allies to stop the revolts in exchange for naval and trade rights.

There’s five years separating these events.
 
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