Does conversion from one brand of Xtianity to another one count?
Yes, absolutely.
Does conversion from one brand of Xtianity to another one count?
Has there ever been mass conversion of one 'literate religion to another? Bangladesh and the one third of South Koreans is all I can think of. Koreans are Christian the way Poles are Catholic . With Orthodox Russia on one side and Lutheran Germany in the other in Poland's case, and caught between China and Japan for S Korea. I just don't see where these mass conversions are coming from.
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French Revolution expands successfully and all of Western Europe is dominated by the Cult of Reason.We think of religious conversion on a mass scale as being largely a pre-1700 thing. Christianity, Buddhism and Islam converted huge areas to long lasting effect. We have also had whole nations switch from Sunni to Shia Islam or from Catholicism to Protestantism and back again.
However, there is no reason to believe this has to stop around 1700. It just seems to be the way the cookie crumbled in our history. And there are signs that religious waves could have continued, if you look at the Boxers in China, Christianity in Korea, or rapid evangelical growth in Brazil today.
So what are the ingredients we need for an entire nation to change religion, or at least religious denomination, in the late modern period? Presumably we would need a POD pretty early on, like the colonial empires being more religiously driven. Or maybe something else I haven't thought of.
Thoughts?
French Revolution expands successfully and all of Western Europe is dominated by the Cult of Reason.
Do we actually believe the Cult of Reason could replace Catholicism among the public? The USSR didn't manage to displace Russian Orthodoxy.