More Monarchs do what Prince Carl of Denmark (Haakon VII) did

It's a Vague title I know, but hear me out.

When Prince Carl of Denmark became elected King of Norway in 1905, he decided to rename himself Haakon, as it was a historical name borne by many Norwegian kings. But, doing this also gave him the Regnal Number VII. So my mind started thinking "What if the newly emerged Kingdoms/Principalities in the Balkans did the same for the same reasons"

1: Bulgaria.
First off, Two of Bulgaria's monarchs took their name and regnal number from past kings. Boris III and Simeon II (and the Heir apparent is named Kardam), but I want this to specifically apply to Ferdinand I as well. So, I decided that ITTL he renames himself to become Peter V.

2: Greece
Now George I of Greece actually did rename himself from his Danish name Vilhelm upon becoming king, so with that in mind, it shouldn't take many butterflies for him to rename himself after one of the Byzantine Emperors. My pick was for him to rename himself John and take his regnal number from the Byzantine emperors to become John IX. Without a George I, there would be no George II so he would be John X.

Alexander of Greece can actually keep his name, he would just get the number II behind him, as there was one, rather obscure Byzantine Emperor by that name.

Now what you probably waited for the most, the two Constantine's. Yes, ITTL they do take their regnal number straight from the Byzantine emperors to become Constantine XII & XIII respectively.

3: Serbia
Peter I of Serbia would simply get the number II behind him, as there was one Serbian monarch by that name prior to him. The Alexanders, however, are a different story. Here I did what I did for the other monarchs and found out that so many of Serbia's Monarchs were named Stefan, without anyone of them numbered (Except for 5 whose full name was Stefan Uroš) So, I decided to cheat a little bit by counting every single Stefan up (excluding the aforementioned 5) and included all the Alexanders to end up with Stefan XII, XIII, & XIV respectively.

4: Albania
The Monarch William also gets an entire name change, but since he's of German origin, and his house was called Wied-Neuwied. I think it would be perfect to simply give him the name, Carol (Charles), as that, would give him the regnal number IV. since 3 Albanian monarchs prior had that name. (Ok, they were all not actually Albanian, but they're counted as "Albanian Monarchs" so...)

So yeah... How likely would all of this have been?
 
1: Bulgaria.
First off, Two of Bulgaria's monarchs took their name and regnal number from past kings. Boris III and Simeon II (and the Heir apparent is named Kardam), but I want this to specifically apply to Ferdinand I as well. So, I decided that ITTL he renames himself to become Peter V.
Possible. I can't think of anything against it.

2: Greece
Now George I of Greece actually did rename himself from his Danish name Vilhelm upon becoming king, so with that in mind, it shouldn't take many butterflies for him to rename himself after one of the Byzantine Emperors. My pick was for him to rename himself John and take his regnal number from the Byzantine emperors to become John IX. Without a George I, there would be no George II so he would be John X.
Greece doesn't count itself as a continuation of the Empire though. You'd need to change it's independence movement from Greek Nationalism to Rhoman.
3: Serbia
Peter I of Serbia would simply get the number II behind him, as there was one Serbian monarch by that name prior to him. The Alexanders, however, are a different story. Here I did what I did for the other monarchs and found out that so many of Serbia's Monarchs were named Stefan, without anyone of them numbered (Except for 5 whose full name was Stefan Uroš) So, I decided to cheat a little bit by counting every single Stefan up (excluding the aforementioned 5) and included all the Alexanders to end up with Stefan XII, XIII, & XIV respectively.
Stephan here was less a name and more a title taken upon being crowned (stephanos = crowned). Compare the inverse usage of Caesar.
4: Albania
The Monarch William also gets an entire name change, but since he's of German origin, and his house was called Wied-Neuwied. I think it would be perfect to simply give him the name, Carol (Charles), as that, would give him the regnal number IV. since 3 Albanian monarchs prior had that name. (Ok, they were all not actually Albanian, but they're counted as "Albanian Monarchs" so...)
Can't see anything against it.
 
All of those ideas are reasonable enough.

In the Serbian case, it's kinda complicated - the Stefans were not meant to be all counted together, since it's both a name and a royal prefix. The new monarchs could choose to be Stephen Uroš (VI, VII and VIII). Alternately, they could use double names: Stephen Peter I, Stephen Alexander, etc. which would be just as legitimate from the PoV of medieval tradition.

Oh, and "Charles" in Albania would be pretty pointless. According to some, William of Albania did style himself "Skanderbeg II" - which makes more sense - but without fully changing his name. I haven't found any conclusive sources on this.
 
German candidate to the throne of puppet Lithuania during ww1, Duke Wilhelm of Urach, was proclaimed king under name Mindaugas II, during ww2 Aimone of Savoy, Duke of Aosta, was named as Tomislav II, King of Croatia
 
Greece doesn't count itself as a continuation of the Empire though.

I remember reading a quote from Wikipedia that said "King who would reconquer Constantinople", the future "Constantine XII, legitimate successor to the Emperor Constantine XI"

But then again, whilst Wikipedia is more trustworthy now than throughout the 2000's I shouldn't take it for granted.

In the Serbian case, it's kinda complicated - the Stefans were not meant to be all counted together, since it's both a name and a royal prefix.

Fret not! Because I had an alternative which now seems much more likely. My alternative was to count up all the Serbian monarchs named Jovan (John) and with the same process as before, we'd end up with Jovan VII, VIII & IX respectively.

Oh, and "Charles" in Albania would be pretty pointless. According to some, William of Albania did style himself "Skanderbeg II

And? Still, I knew about the additional Title of Skanderbeg (being the national hero and all), though I had an alternative here as well to name him Gjin (Latin: Ginius) which is immediately an Albanian name coz of the unmistakeable Gj in the beginning, naming him this would still give him the regnal number IV. or, I could just go so far as to actually name him Skanderbeg II
 
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I thought the Greeks in the 1800s originally saw themselves as Byzantine Romans, but that West Europeans obsessed with classical Greece made them adapt a little, in order to get better support or something.
 
Alexander of Greece can actually keep his name, he would just get the number II behind him, as there was one, rather obscure Byzantine Emperor by that name.

How about Alexander IV? Wasn't Alexander the Great Alexander III?
 
Ancient Macedonia had even lesser doing with modern Greece than Byzantine. Greeks on 19th even didn't consireded being Romans. They were Greeks. There is difference.

This, plus there was also the fact that, unlike the Greeks and Serbs, this was the first time there was ever a united Greek monarchy (that isn't Byzantium). For all intents and purposes, there wouldn't be a need for a continuation of numbers, but a new set altogether.

To keep with the theme, and to bring in controversy, Germany. Perhaps as a continuation of the old Kingdom of Germany (and perhaps the HRE itself), have Frederick III, German Emperor, be styled as Frederick IV.
 
To keep with the theme, and to bring in controversy, Germany. Perhaps as a continuation of the old Kingdom of Germany (and perhaps the HRE itself), have Frederick III, German Emperor, be styled as Frederick IV.
Or maybe Austrian Emperors continue numeration of Archdukes of Austria, like German Hohenzollern Emperors continued numeration of Prussian Kings?
 
This, plus there was also the fact that, unlike the Greeks and Serbs, this was the first time there was ever a united Greek monarchy (that isn't Byzantium). For all intents and purposes, there wouldn't be a need for a continuation of numbers, but a new set altogether.

To keep with the theme, and to bring in controversy, Germany. Perhaps as a continuation of the old Kingdom of Germany (and perhaps the HRE itself), have Frederick III, German Emperor, be styled as Frederick IV.
Actually the terminally ill Frederick III did originally consider using Frederick IV on his accession, but Bismarck convinced him to use the regnal "III" of Prussian kings for political reasons. Most likely to pacify the other German kings and princes who also have their own names and regnal number designations. With only 100 days to live, (though he was not sure himself), Frederick III agreed with Bismarck because he had too little time to argue over that issue.
 

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I thought the Greeks in the 1800s originally saw themselves as Byzantine Romans, but that West Europeans obsessed with classical Greece made them adapt a little, in order to get better support or something.

I don't think it's as simple as that. Yes the Byzantine heritage meant a lot to the Greeks and other Orthodox peoples, and meant very little to West Europeans. But there was enough cultural sharing between between western Europe and Russia and the increasingly internationally engaged Greek population that the pride in classical Greece probably genuinely rubbed off on the latter by the late 1700s.

During the Orlov Revolt, where native Greeks worked with Russian officers in Greece, they set up two "Spartan Legions".
 
Or maybe Austrian Emperors continue numeration of Archdukes of Austria, like German Hohenzollern Emperors continued numeration of Prussian Kings?

I did consider those as well. I even went as far as to label FJ as Franz III Josef.

And Karl as Karl IV, Otto as Otto II ect.
 
Ancient Macedonia had even lesser doing with modern Greece than Byzantine. Greeks on 19th even didn't consireded being Romans. They were Greeks. There is difference.
So why not associate with the most famous Greek ruler of all time? Calling yourself Alexander IV directly connects you with the golden age of Greece, never mind any arguments over the actual connection between ancient Macedonia and modern Greece.

(Practically speaking, though, I suspect it would have been viewed as a claim on Macedonia and hence discouraged by the various Powers to avoid stirring up trouble with the Ottomans)
 
George I of Greece is staying such. George is a Greek name, and his fragile realm is a new state distinct from past states in the same area out of necessity more than desire.
 
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