More German languages?

In 16th century, German language was a dialect continuum spoken from Memel to Maas and from Schlei to Etsch (or whatever Deutschland, Deutschland über alles says). It was, however, a fairly divergent continuum, with major division between High and Low German.

For some reason, most of Germans would end up writing Thuringian dialect. With the sole exception of the Dutch - who, despite being a part of Low German dialect continuum, created the second and, in Europe, last German written language.

Why did so much of Germany end up writing Thuringian dialect?
What would it take to have additional German languages?
 

Tyr Anazasi

Banned
The Thuringian language, or better the language of the Thuringian courts (Maißener Kanzleisprache), was used as a base by Luther to translate and write the bible. This was the beginning of the standard high German language of today. He used mostly words from this and his regional room, less Lower German terms. Until that you had only the local dialects.

Even without that I doubt it was possible to form another German language as there was the need to for a standard German seen shortly after Luther as well. Only a major and lasting division of the HRR into at least two equal blocks may have changed that. And for that I don't see any possibility then, as none of the powers of the HRR were able to challenge the Habsburgs. And even then it would be problematic.
 
Even without that I doubt it was possible to form another German language as there was the need to for a standard German seen shortly after Luther as well. Only a major and lasting division of the HRR into at least two equal blocks may have changed that.
United Provinces were a block rather unequal to HRE. Yet they did form Dutch language. Why did no one else?

Also, once the Dutch did - how about the rest of Low Germans? They were along the same dialect continuum. Münster to southeast of United Provinces was Catholic and hostile... but north coast? Along the coast, East Frisia, Oldenburg, Bremen, Hamburg, Holstein, Lübeck... could they have decided to adopt Dutch over Thuringian dialect, on grounds that it was closer to the local vernacular, even if not identical?
And for that I don't see any possibility then, as none of the powers of the HRR were able to challenge the Habsburgs. And even then it would be problematic.

But why did Habsburgs themselves swallow Thuringian dialect? Luther was a heretic.
 

Tyr Anazasi

Banned
Luther was a heretic (ion their eyes) but he did much to develope the German language. The Meißener Kanzleisprache was considered then as "good German", similar to Oxford English.

For the Dutch: They became independent in 1648 from Spain and the HRR and thus did develope an own language.
 
The Meißener Kanzleisprache was considered then as "good German", similar to Oxford English.

For the Dutch: They became independent in 1648 from Spain and the HRR and thus did develope an own language.

Peace of Westphalia of 1648 ALSO recognized Swiss Confederation as outside HRE, but Swiss did NOT develop their own language.
 
Peace of Westphalia of 1648 ALSO recognized Swiss Confederation as outside HRE, but Swiss did NOT develop their own language.

Sort of. Swiss German is somewhat codified, although it is not the written standard of German-speaking Switzerland.

I don't think it is so difficult for the Austro-Bavarian dialect continuum to develop a separate standard based on the older High German prestige variety in the right political circumstances (probably involving a Habsburg/Wettin polarity).
Alemannisch also showed some abortive tendency to develop a written standard (famously, Friederich Hoelderlin wrote in vernacular as well as Standard Deutsch).
 
Top