Miscellaneous <1900 (Alternate) History Thread
- Thread starter RMcD94
- Start date
If there was no Inca civil war, would the Spanish conquest go faster or slower?
Slower. The Spanish were insanely lucky that they could capture Atahualpa so easily. A unified Inca Empire under Wayna Qapac would have been harder to subdue, if only because the empire wasn't crippled by civil war.
What 'd have been the consequences if the British Cabinet/Admiralty, 'd have had been decided a harsher response to the '31 Invergordon Mutiny and/or from an immediate and harsher repression of it?
Any ideas for what would have happened to the "half" of the Austrian Empire outside of the German Confederation if the 1848 German Revolution was successful? Would the Hungarians revolt? What about Galicia-Volhynia and Croatia? I don't know much about this stuff.
Anyone know 19th century england would take a Cinderella story with the PoW marrying a commoner ?
Bit of a random question, but had George Bush Sr. been re-elected, is there a chance he would have more majorly intervened in the Rwandan Genocide?
Grey Wolf
Donor
There is a good documentary, including a court case against Pissaro and the documentary evidence, which shows that the early Spanish settlers worked with and even married into the royalty of the peoples who had been subjugated by the Inca
WI: Modern Sinitic languages directly descended from Old Chinese (not just Min languages).
Does anyone know when the sons and daughters of English monarchs started being referred to as Prince and Princess, if I'm understanding correctly we only started using the term, as with Duke, post Norman conquest
It's a lot later than that.
'Prince' until just two centuries ago was just another word for a sovereign ruler. The only use of Prince as a title in England was the Prince of Wales, dating from 1301 when Edward I gave his son (the future Ed II) the title of Prince of Wales. Apart from that, there were no prince/princess titles in either England or Scotland; they were instead called 'Lord <name>' or 'Lady <name>'. This applied even to first sons of English monarchs until they were installed as Prince of Wales - which didn't/doesn't happen automatically. Apart from the specific title of PoW, it wasn't until 1714 (the accession of George I) that all children of a British monarch were referred to as princes/princesses. Through the 19th century and into the 20th, the number of princes and princesses increased dramatically until George V issued letters patent in 1917 which restricted the title to just children of the monarch.
Regarding 'duke' — that title wasn't used for a few centuries after the Norman Conquest. I've read in a few places that this was because the Norman kings, as Dukes of Normandy as well, didn't want to have anyone in their kingdom bearing a title which put him on the same level, theoretically, as the king. I don't know how true this actually is, but it's certainly the case that there were no dukes in England until 1337 and none in Scotland until 1398.
(Note that the 'rules' were different in other countries - the above is British-specific.)
Sources:
Prince and princess | Definition, Countries, History, & Facts
Prince, a European title of rank, usually denoting a person exercising complete or almost complete sovereignty or a member of a royal family, but in some cases used to designate high-ranking nobles. Although lordly vassals might conventionally be referred to as “princes,” the title of prince was
www.britannica.com
Duke | Title, Rank & History of Nobility
Duke, Duke and Duchess equivalentsa European title of nobility, having ordinarily the highest rank below a prince or king (except in countries having such titles as archduke or grand duke). It is one of the five ranks of British nobility and peerage, which, in descending order, are duke, marquess,
www.britannica.com
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Another random question -
Let's say Noble House A begat a cadet branch Noble House B, but Noble House A became extinct in the male line, such that the cadet branch became the most senior branch. Would Noble House B ceased to be known by its cadet name and revoke to the title of Noble House A.
Let's say Noble House A begat a cadet branch Noble House B, but Noble House A became extinct in the male line, such that the cadet branch became the most senior branch. Would Noble House B ceased to be known by its cadet name and revoke to the title of Noble House A.
If the Valois and the Bourbons are anything to go by, Noble House B will still be known as Noble House B.