If Robert Dudley is free and there's no scandal attached to Amy Dudley's death ITTL, Robert. No question.If Elizabeth I were to marry around 1562-1563, who would be the most likely husband for her?
He's also....not all there in the head, and married to his mistressErik of Sweden wanted her and it's a good Protestant match
Didn't marry her until 1568. That's a full five years after OP has Elizabeth marrying.He's also....not all there in the head, and married to his mistress
Ah. Well - he could work. Anglo-Swedish union could be a bit tricky though, since you can't really rule one from another (and neither can move to be with the other)Didn't marry her until 1568. That's a full five years after OP has Elizabeth marrying.
Administratively, Cologne didn't span the Rhine until 1888. AFAIK, the trans-river suburbs of the other two cities you name are independent of them to this day. I haven't found any indication that when the border was set on the Rhine there were deviations in practice.When France's border was on the left side of the Rhine, what happened to the cities that span both sides of the river? I'm thinking about cities like Cologne, Mainz and Düsseldorf. Did none of these cities span cross-river yet in this era? Or did France's border not follow the Rhine as neatly as most maps depict?
Well historically it never happened in the UK and as for France I think maybe technically kind of the Paris Commune but I am saying that with a limited understanding of what really happened with the creation and management of it so..... yeah historically it was not a big deal but something politicians brought up for the convenience of having a boogeyman to use...How true is the claim that communist revolutions didn't really occur in industrialized nations such as the UK or France since the middle classes lacked an incentive for it?
The only way I can see this happening is if a major conflict at home is occurring or the Spanish fail to conquer the Aztec EmpireStunt, delay, or deny the colonization of Quebec/Canada/Newfoundland by France or England for as much as possible.
If Ferdinand of Austria is named heir to Castile and Aragon in place of Charles V, would Eleanor of Austria still marry into Portugal, or is her use there gone? What happens to Catherine of Austria?
So, I was thinking about these messages again, and I was wondering: realistically, what would happen if Fernando had been named heir to Castile and Aragon over Charles V? I’m aware that Ferdinand II would have to outlive Maximilian to have that happen, but I mean in the aftermath. Would Charles just have to accept that his brother has displaced him as King of Spain, or would there possibly be a succession war between the two?No, Catherine will be married to John III of Portugal as OTL (most likely in a double match with Ferdinand and Isabella) but Eleanor will be married elsewhere (England, France, Lorraine or Poland… all matches proposed for her in OTL).
Ferdinand II would NOT need to outlive Maximilian but simply live longer than OTL, at least of a couple of years mostly for consenting to his favorite grandson to be adult enough to rule of his own. Naming Fernando as heir of Aragon and get him recognized as such would be pretty easy for Ferdinand II, the problem is Castile where the old King is not exactly popular since his remarriage to Germaine AND the Castilian rulership in OTL was pretty determined to upheld Charles‘ rights to that Crown. So what you truly need is getting some way for persuading Cisneros and the Cortes of Castile to switch their support from Charles to Fernando… Charles V’s marriage or election as King of the Romans or Holy Roman Emperor (but he would be likely elected in the lifetime of Maximilian if he was not already king of Spain) could be an option, Fernando being named as Prince of Girona and engaged to Isabella of Portugal another… Likely Charles would be deeply resented for such developments and would try to reaffirm his rights as firstborn son or at least try to get a compensation for the loss of that Crowns, but is unlikely who he would receive much support and the most realistic option is him resigning to the loss (or accepting/receiving some kind of compensation, commercial rights or money). Starting a Civil war in Castile, in which he would have little support, against his own brother is not an option, specially when he had already troubles with France and the Prince electors…So, I was thinking about these messages again, and I was wondering: realistically, what would happen if Fernando had been named heir to Castile and Aragon over Charles V? I’m aware that Ferdinand II would have to outlive Maximilian to have that happen, but I mean in the aftermath. Would Charles just have to accept that his brother has displaced him as King of Spain, or would there possibly be a succession war between the two?
It wasn't IOTL...Charles V’s marriage or election as King of the Romans or Holy Roman Emperor (but he would be likely elected in the lifetime of Maximilian if he was not already king of Spain) could be an option
what? Charles elected as King of the Romans during Maximilian’s lifetime? I said who he would be likely elected ONLY if he was NOT already King of Spain. In OTL Charles became King of Spain before his 16th birthday and the minimum age for being elected as Holy Roman Emperor was 18 years and usually King of the Romans also were over 18 years at the time of the elections (only very strong Holy Roman Emperors, something who Maximilian was NOT, specially in his last years, were able to get their heirs to be elected as King of the Romans under 18 years old). So can you explain to what you mean?It wasn't IOTL...
That Charles' status as heir to the empire clearly did not prevent him inheriting Spain (and Ferdinand II of Aragon would not have so many methods to stop him from getting Aragon)So can you explain to what you mean?