- From start to end, what years did the Most Serene Republic of Venice exist?
Impossible to say. See, having an autonomous Venetian region doesn't mean there was a real republic, as it existed during MA and modern era. Venetian historiography tended to assume late byzantine rulers being doges, but it wasn't that.
So, depending on what you define as republic, it could begin
- With Teodato Ipato in 742, as he moved the seat of power from pro-Byzantine Heraclea to Malmocco
- In the XI century, in short of more precise date, as the byzantine domination, then influence faded away.
- Were the Papal States still kicking around that time?
Papal states as such, no. In VIII, you had the Exarchate of Ravenna (a largely autonomous province of Byzantine Empire) limited to Adriatic coast, and the Ducatus Romanus (led by the pope and roman aristocraty) technically part of the exarchate but independent in practically all regards.
Later, with Pepinnid/Carolingian advance, Papal States were created as a pontifical state under protection of Franks. It wouldn't be after the crumble of Frankish Empire and basically one century and half of crisis (with the fall of Carolingians, popes lost their political support and their local authority was challenged by aristocratic struggles).
Basically, Papal States as an important factor (while Papacy was a strong factor anyway, be careful to not mix both) doesn't really appear after the XI century and the Gregorian Reforms and Peace of God movement that legitimized the temporal independence of the Roman Church.
During Middle Ages, Papal States were a thing, but as much kinging than kicked. By Imperials, by Franks/French (Agniani), by Roman infighting (Cola di Rienzo, by exemple), with a good portion of italian nobles theorically under their suzerainty not giving a damn.
Italian Renaissance saw a political rise of Papal States, crushed quickly by the same factors.
- How was France, HRE/Prussia/Austria, England and Spain doing around that time?
We're talking of 1000 years of history, here. This thread wouldn't be large enough to discuss it.
- What year did Columbus sign up for the trip to "India".
1492.
- Was the Ottoman Empire around that time?
Not before the XV century. It was dominant in Eastern Mediterranea (effectivly blockading and monopolizing it) after having gained access to both Adriatic sea and Egypt. It was then a problem for Venica whom wealth was from trade in this eastern basin, and eventually (also because of Portuguese takeover in India, that led to Mameluk decline, and their own conquest), Venica focused more on Africa trade (notably silver) that was declining after the discovery of Americas.
I have some really good ideas (and it won't involve Venice uniting Italy!) and I can't wait to share them![/QUOTE]