Doing research for my timeline, have a question if someone could help me.
Maria Theresa of Spain was wife to King Louis XIV of France. When Philip Prospero died she was heiress presumptive to Spain, though until the birth of Charles II.
Now, if Charles II is not born, since she is wife to King Louis, if Philip IV has no more children and dies, does this make her Queen of Spain and how would the Spanish nobility take this? Would Spain tolerate almost being subservient to France (I realise Maria is Queen, not Louis King of Spain but I would guess this would ruffle a few feathers). Also with Spain lacking the Dowry payment, could the issue of Maria and Louis claim the thrones of both Spain and France?
This seems unlikely to me, but I'm trying to work out how things would resolve.