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Somewhat surprised this doesn't seem to have really been done before, that or search simply isn't being helpful. What do people think the outcome might be if John Sigismund Prince-Elector and Margrave of Brandenburg hadn't inherited the Duchy of Prussia in 1618 via his wife? Legally, initially at least, he or his wife wouldn't of had any rights to the Duchy. Albert of Hohenzollern was the last Grand Master of the Teutonic Knights who signed the Treaty of Krakow in 1525 which formally ended the Polish–Teutonic War of 1519–1521 allowing Albert the opportunity to convert to Lutheranism and secularise the Monastic State, making the Prussian Homage to Sigismund I the Old two days later that recognised him Duke of Prussia as a vassal of the Polish King. One of the clauses of the Treaty of Krakow was that Ducal Prussia could only be inherited in the male line by descendants of Albert, this becomes important later.

Fast forward a few years and Albert Frederick the second Duke of Prussia had no sons so Sigismund II Augustus of Poland granted a special dispensation to allow the Duchy to be inherited via one of his daughters. When Albert Frederick dies in 1618 Ducal Prussia passes to his daughter Anna of Prussia and her husband John Sigismund Prince-Elector and Margrave of Brandenburg, thus creating the personal union of Brandenburg-Prussia. What if Sigismund II Augustus had declined to grant the favour though? He was certainly under no legal obligation to. Come 1618 and this means that with no legal heirs Ducal Prussia reverts back to Poland and becomes the property of Sigismund III Vasa as King of Poland. This would certainly seem to throw a spanner in the works of the future Kingdom of Prussia's rise to domination of Germany.
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