Oh look, an alternate history early 19th century United States. Never seen this before. [also i made this]View attachment 368997
They chose the Mason-Dixon Line back in 1774 to divide the 13 colonies at, and Jamestown (the UPC's capital) is in Virginia. I don't have much of an actual "history" here, more just some vague implication that the northern colonies and the southern colonies couldn't agree on how to get along (after the history of English/British colonialism played out differently), and they eventually separated into two nations. Ever since then, they've been squabbling over their border, and the Ohio River was only the most recent example of that.Why does Virginia go with the south?
SNIP
Vive les Bernadottes. Lange lever Bernadotterna.
Why does Virginia go with the south?
Oh look, an alternate history early 19th century United States. Never seen this before. [also i made this]View attachment 368997
They would care a lot.Wouldn't the dude be Protestant? Most of the French support for the monarchy was Catholic in nature, so it may not go very well. You could see an unlikely alliance of republicans and monarchists to boot the foreign monarch out.
Edit: welp, he started Catholic, but he may have to convert back to keep the French happy. Not sure how much the Swede would care.
They would care a lot.
EDIT: I am pretty sure the proposal would have made Jean Baptiste Bernadotte king of France instead of king of Sweden-Norway.
This was going well and then I saw the Jewish state in East Prussia. How exactly did that happen?Just a little sketch. Basically the Allies win a very quick victory in WW1 and this is what happens. The British get dominance over a Raj-esque entity stretching from Austria to the North Sea, with George V as Prince-President. The Hohenzollerns control a rump independent Prussia (though they have to share the south of the former East Prussia with a Jewish state). The Habsburgs hold Austria, but are subject to the laws of the Middle European Union.
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Why would the British and not the French have more influence in former Germany?Just a little sketch. Basically the Allies win a very quick victory in WW1 and this is what happens. The British get dominance over a Raj-esque entity stretching from Austria to the North Sea, with George V as Prince-President. The Hohenzollerns control a rump independent Prussia (though they have to share the south of the former East Prussia with a Jewish state). The Habsburgs hold Austria, but are subject to the laws of the Middle European Union.
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I suspect it's because George V is not only technically German, but also Wilhelm II's cousin.Why would the British and not the French have more influence in former Germany?
Being a Southern state to begin with helps, especially when Virginia was the most populated and economically developed one during the 17th and 18th centuries.
Great map! Interesting scenario.Just a little sketch. Basically the Allies win a very quick victory in WW1 and this is what happens. The British get dominance over a Raj-esque entity stretching from Austria to the North Sea, with George V as Prince-President. The Hohenzollerns control a rump independent Prussia (though they have to share the south of the former East Prussia with a Jewish state). The Habsburgs hold Austria, but are subject to the laws of the Middle European Union.
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But it also had strong federalists, including Washington, who said if the south left the USA, he'd move north. It's certainly possible!
Probably used the old HRE borders.Great map! Interesting scenario.
How did you make the borders for the "Germany-raj"? Just random lines? Or something else?
Also, why is the ottoman empire is affected? Did they not join the central powers?
Well, looks like George is going to need to change the Royal House's name back from Windsor.Just a little sketch. Basically the Allies win a very quick victory in WW1 and this is what happens. The British get dominance over a Raj-esque entity stretching from Austria to the North Sea, with George V as Prince-President. The Hohenzollerns control a rump independent Prussia (though they have to share the south of the former East Prussia with a Jewish state). The Habsburgs hold Austria, but are subject to the laws of the Middle European Union.
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In a thread about an alternate Jewish homeland there was something about East Prussia going to the Jews. I was somewhat confused, and thought it said David Lloyd George instead of David Ben-Gurion. And then this happened.This was going well and then I saw the Jewish state in East Prussia. How exactly did that happen?
I don't have a coherent explanation, in aftiafxWhy would the British and not the French have more influence in former Germany?
I used German states that were not a part of Prussia, then divided up the Prussian parts semi-randomly.Great map! Interesting scenario.
How did you make the borders for the "Germany-raj"? Just random lines? Or something else?
Also, why is the ottoman empire is affected? Did they not join the central powers?