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While the populations of the UK, Germany, Japan etc increased dramatically after industrialization, France's have barely doubled since the Napoleonic Age, growing mostly after WW2. Funny to notice that they didn't even emigrated as much as several other countries from Western Europe.

They were indeed much more populous than the rest of Europe in the late XVIII century, so even if not to grow on the same race, how could they have grown at least significantly, with any POD after 1750?

An obvious answer could be intensifying the Industrial Revolution in France, but i don't know exactly what inhibited it on the first place.
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