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The British occupied the valuable French sugar island of guadalupe during the 7 years war but gave it back as part of the peace settlement. Why did the Bute ministry agree to this concession? Was it exchanged for the French evacuation of a particular place they occupied in Europe or the mediterranean? Was it exchanged for French cession of land in north America? (seems like those territories the British had not occupied yet (the mississippi watershed basically) were not defensible and at britain's mercy in 1763 though.) were the British just eager to end the war and the French convinced London they were not more weary and might launch new European or naval campaigns if Britain refused to hand back guadalupe? One explanation I heard was that plantation owners in the British sugar growing islands wanted competitive Guadalupe sugar kept out of the British imperial trading system? Any truth to that?

What if the British made a different decision? I believe william Pitt advocated keeping Guadalupe. What if Britain kept the island?

Or if the British sugar producers were in fact the decisive in the bite ministry's decision what about the solution of ceding the island to third power to both avoid the competition within the British market and deny the French crown a source of revenue.

For instance Guadalupe could be ceded to Prussia as a reward for it's alliance and serve as a means to enable Berlin to pay back it's debts sooner. Or, Guadalupe can be given to Hanover. That way it stays under the crown but not british. Was Hanover integrated into the British system of trade at this time? Other options might include spain which was awarded Louisiana eve though it was britain's enemy. Why did the get that territory by the way? Whose idea was it?
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