Some hypotheses talking about Iranian origins of the Slavs, as descendants of absorbed Scytho-Sarmatian tribes. Suppose in this topic, that it might be true. The Iranians had were amalgamated with the local tribes in a South-Balto-Slavic linguistic periphery and taking one of their dialects, influencing on it by own language. However, it is commonly believed that the Iranian nomadic peoples had a some higher level of cultural traditions than the Balto-Slavs. This raises the idea that the stronger culture did not provide of their language to their offspring, but adopted the language from the weaker side.
What would be a reverse process, when stronger side give an Iranic language, perhaps similar to Alanian or another Northern Iranic ?
What would be a reverse process, when stronger side give an Iranic language, perhaps similar to Alanian or another Northern Iranic ?