In a scenario in which the Roman Empire is re-unified after the Fall of the West, but before the Romance languages become literary languages, would it be reasonable to expect greater diversification of the dialects that would have become the Romance languages?
Consider that the official language of government would likely remain 'proper' Latin (as it did, anyway). Consider also that the government would likely not ilt towards any one regional dialect over the others. So, no Parisian dialect dominating Gaul, no Castillian dominating Hispania, no Tuscan dialect dominating Italia. So, the regional dialects that waned in the face of those local powerhouses would hold out.
Then, geography has to be taken into consideration. Regions like Italy and the Balkans are so rugged that the local dialects are likely to be much smaller and more fragmented. Meanwhile, regions like France are relatively flat, so their dialects might be more widely spread.
Consider that the official language of government would likely remain 'proper' Latin (as it did, anyway). Consider also that the government would likely not ilt towards any one regional dialect over the others. So, no Parisian dialect dominating Gaul, no Castillian dominating Hispania, no Tuscan dialect dominating Italia. So, the regional dialects that waned in the face of those local powerhouses would hold out.
Then, geography has to be taken into consideration. Regions like Italy and the Balkans are so rugged that the local dialects are likely to be much smaller and more fragmented. Meanwhile, regions like France are relatively flat, so their dialects might be more widely spread.