When Marie-Therese de France (alternatively Madame Royal, Mme la Duchesse d'Angouleme and lastly, Mme la Dauphine (we're not counting her half hour tenure as queen-consort) heard of Ferdinand VII repealing Salic Law in Spain, she ruefully commented "France shouldve done that centuries ago".
I realize all the hoops she wouldve had to jump through, but what if she had succeeded as "Reine des Francais/de France et Navarre" when Louis XVII died?
AIIRC, Napoleon made a proviso for a female to succeed, but she had to marry a cousin or something (my Napoleonic legal knowledge is fallable).