Only if you're using a very limited definition.
No, Latin America is defined as the countries of the America's that speak a Romance Language.
The aforementioned countries are Anglophone countries and are not part of Latin America.
Only if you're using a very limited definition.
Only if you're using a very limited definition.
And you'll notice I also posted about the GDP PPP per capita.
You can't compare Cuba and South Korea in this ay for one very important reason: population.
Today Cuba has a population of 11.2 million compared to South Korea with a population of 50 million.
Now going back to 1960, the point SK entered the rapid industrialization phase it had a population of 25 million where-as Cuba at the time only had a population of 7 million.
Now, while Cuba could build some industries and become First World by the present day, it's never going to be able to be the equivalent of South Korea.
Gini-Coefficient -is- a good measure of development past a certain GDP per capita, as indicated by the Kuznets curve.Not a very good measure of development. There are poor countries with low Gini coefficients (Bangladesh, Eithiopia) and rich ones with high coefficients like the United States. And I'm not sure that statement is accurate either; according to the CIA World Factbook, all of the countries you listed that they have data for have higher Gini coefficients than France.
No, Latin America is defined as the countries of the America's that speak a Romance Language.
The aforementioned countries are Anglophone countries and are not part of Latin America.
So...if Quebec seceded from Canada it would be Latin American?