Latin alphabet never spreads

Let’s say in this timeline, the Latin Alphabet never spreads outside Latin-speaking Europe (Spain, Italy, etc.). Ogham and Runic continue to be used in place of the Latin alphabet in Germanic and Celtic Europe. Other writing systems are used around the world instead of Latin. In this timeline, Latin alphabet doesn’t spread beyond Latin Europe and more non-Latin scripts are used for writing languages. How wil society and culture and all other stuff change? How will the world be like with more languages using non-Latin scripts?
 
and truth be told, for English, the Latin alphabet’s not all that great!

for example, the letter “c” can either be the hard or soft sound, and a bunch other exemptions and quirks
 
I mean any non-linguistic change would be more a collateral effect of creating the circumstances that allow non-latin scripts to thrive, so there shouldn't be much change that is directly affected by the alphabetical diversity.
 
for example, the letter “c” can either be the hard or soft sound

This is true in many European languages, including all of the Romance languages IIRC. It’s really not complicated - hard c before a/o/u and soft c before e/i/y.

English just needed a spelling reform to get rid of some of its inconsistencies. Accents would be helpful too.
 
Let’s say in this timeline, the Latin Alphabet never spreads outside Latin-speaking Europe (Spain, Italy, etc.). Ogham and Runic continue to be used in place of the Latin alphabet in Germanic and Celtic Europe. Other writing systems are used around the world instead of Latin. In this timeline, Latin alphabet doesn’t spread beyond Latin Europe and more non-Latin scripts are used for writing languages. How wil society and culture and all other stuff change? How will the world be like with more languages using non-Latin scripts?

The Greek alphabet will eventually make its way over in one way or another, that's for sure, even if it has to adapt to incorporate new sounds that have been lost in or foreign to Greek. For example - while Greek lost the voiced stops, only to regain them in prenasalized form as <μπ, ντ, γκ> (making my first name literally written from English to Greek as Ντένιελ instead of the original Δανήλ /ða'nil/, for example), it could certainly be possible to create new letters just specifically for the voiced stops even if adapted from elsewhere. Also, the Greek alphabet has dedicated letters <Θ/θ, Δ/δ> for the two sounds making up English <th>, which could be of some help for those languages which use those sounds.
 
and truth be told, for English, the Latin alphabet’s not all that great!

for example, the letter “c” can either be the hard or soft sound, and a bunch other exemptions and quirks

That's primarily a quirk of post-Latin sound changes that was adopted later on, since when the alphabet was devised <c> was consistently hard. Now, as to what sound it represented originally is up to debate as it's been used for both types of velar stop known to most European languages (indeed, <c> is a variant Italic form of the original <Γ/γ>, which explains the letter's place in the alphabet) alongside <k> and <q> (the latter with and without <v/u>), but based on reconstructions we know that its most basic representation is that of the voiceless velar stop /k/, a pronunciation retained by northern dialects of Sardinian. Other quirks of the Latin/Roman alphabet can be explained in the same way, that in the beginning there was more or less a pretty adequate fit of grapheme to phoneme which broke down after the passage of Latin towards its daughter languages.
 
The Greek alphabet will eventually make its way over in one way or another, that's for sure, even if it has to adapt to incorporate new sounds that have been lost in or foreign to Greek. For example - while Greek lost the voiced stops, only to regain them in prenasalized form as <μπ, ντ, γκ> (making my first name literally written from English to Greek as Ντένιελ instead of the original Δανήλ /ða'nil/, for example), it could certainly be possible to create new letters just specifically for the voiced stops even if adapted from elsewhere. Also, the Greek alphabet has dedicated letters <Θ/θ, Δ/δ> for the two sounds making up English <th>, which could be of some help for those languages which use those sounds.
Why would people in Northern Europe start using Greek when not even Armenians, Slavs or Georgians did?
 
The Greek alphabet will eventually make its way over in one way or another, that's for sure, even if it has to adapt to incorporate new sounds that have been lost in or foreign to Greek. For example - while Greek lost the voiced stops, only to regain them in prenasalized form as <μπ, ντ, γκ> (making my first name literally written from English to Greek as Ντένιελ instead of the original Δανήλ /ða'nil/, for example), it could certainly be possible to create new letters just specifically for the voiced stops even if adapted from elsewhere. Also, the Greek alphabet has dedicated letters <Θ/θ, Δ/δ> for the two sounds making up English <th>, which could be of some help for those languages which use those sounds.
Both the Latin, and Runic alphabets are related to the Greek alphabet, or rather the Greek alphabet family, as there was a lot of regional variation. More specifically, the runes developed from one of the northern italic/Etruscan alphabets (Raetian and Venetian have been suggested), and latin from cumae in southern Italy. Honestly the biggest mystery with regards to runes is why their order is all wonky (hence why they are called futhark/futhorc).

Likewise Galgoltic and Cyrillic scripts are derived from the Greek alphabet of Byzantine times (the former based on the cursive forms).

So in a sense greek alphabets did spread
 
Both the Latin, and Runic alphabets are related to the Greek alphabet, or rather the Greek alphabet family, as there was a lot of regional variation. More specifically, the runes developed from one of the northern italic/Etruscan alphabets (Raetian and Venetian have been suggested), and latin from cumae in southern Italy. Honestly the biggest mystery with regards to runes is why their order is all wonky (hence why they are called futhark/futhorc).

Likewise Galgoltic and Cyrillic scripts are derived from the Greek alphabet of Byzantine times (the former based on the cursive forms).

So in a sense greek alphabets did spread
Well all alphabets in the West and Middle East came from Egyptian and/or Sumerian AFAIK
 
Both the Latin, and Runic alphabets are related to the Greek alphabet, or rather the Greek alphabet family, as there was a lot of regional variation. More specifically, the runes developed from one of the northern italic/Etruscan alphabets (Raetian and Venetian have been suggested), and latin from cumae in southern Italy. Honestly the biggest mystery with regards to runes is why their order is all wonky (hence why they are called futhark/futhorc).

Likewise Galgoltic and Cyrillic scripts are derived from the Greek alphabet of Byzantine times (the former based on the cursive forms).

So in a sense greek alphabets did spread
Yes, but what about Ogham?
 
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