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When the Normans occupied Tunisia for a brief time by mid-12th century, they always used the old Roman name of Africa to refer to their dominions there, as well as the HRE and other European powers.

While in other European regions the Germanic toponyms had replaced the old Roman ones (France/Francia, Lombardy, Burgundy, Gothia...) totally or partially, despite the fact that some of those middle-ages states kept little links to the original Germanic tribes which settled there (i.e. Burgundy), in Africa the term Vandalia did not endure and never replaced the Roman one.

Is it possible that Normans could have revived the term of Vandalia for Africa if they had retained the area for longer time? Curiously, during the American colonization the term was revived and used in some American areas.
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