Jesus is excommunicated and exiled rather than executed

This is a man (Pilate, that is) with a documented history of intentionally provoking and cracking down on the Jewish leadership. He literally unleashed the garrison in the courts of the Temple at one point. The Gospel accounts are the only exception to this pattern (which resumes again shortly after leading to his eventual recall). Some people use this seeming mischaracterization of Pilate as a reason to discount the entire Gospel account as a fabrication but that seems a bit hasty. I
I would agree On that he didn't like the jewish leaders but as mentioned he didn't really have the same feeling of animosity to the jews I did mention in my post that the massacre according to josephus was the fault of the soldiers not pilate
As he says that they deliver harder blows than pilate ordered them to do so ( meaning that he wanted to disperse them not commit a masscre )

The whole tiberius thing would apply here to since disobedience carries a harsh punishment in the Roman empire but Tiberius' purge of all disloyal elements would account for to my knowledge why pilate didn't punish them for disobedience as any one could have said " pilate punished us loyal roman soldiers for attacking rebelious jews he is taking their side "

Or the incident of the golden shields as he was sacared if they told tiberius something
 
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I would agree On that he didn't like the jewish leaders but as mentioned he didn't really have the same feeling of animosity to the jews I did mention in my post that the massacre according to josephus was the fault of the soldiers not pilate
As he says that they deliver harder blows than pilate ordered them to do so ( meaning that he wanted to disperse them not commit a masscre )

The whole tiberius thing would apply here to since disobedience carries a harsh punishment in the Roman empire but Tiberius' purge of all disloyal elements would account for to my knowledge why pilate didn't punish them for disobedience as any one could have said " pilate punished us loyal roman soldiers for attacking rebelious jews he is taking their side "

Or the incident of the golden shields as he was sacared if they told tiberius something
That is a very valid point. He seems to have been rather ambivalent on the Jewish people as a whole and didn't seem to let his attitude toward their leadership bleed over onto them (wasn't his wife Jewish, even?). I seem to have been mistaken on the Temple massacre, I knew that it happened under his tenure but didn't realize that the outcome wasn't what he intended.

Also, I'd never heard about the Golden Shields before. That was interesting to look up. Thanks :)
 
I have to disagree on the notion of the jews not accusing him of blasphemy when it the early creed states he died according to the scriptures ( and based on Christian interpation the scripture was that jesus would be rejected by his people ) and then most historians agree that mark passion narrative comes from earlier tradition
And mark didn't make up the trial but he most likely got it from these earlier sources .
At the same time, though, remember that Mark (whoever the person was, as we still don't know who the person actually was apart from the title) was writing for a community who was still suffering from the trauma of the First Revolt, when the Romans sacked and destroyed both Jerusalem and especially the Temple. At that point, the Sadducees vanish from the record because whatever authority the priests had as intermediaries between Palestinian Jews and the Roman Empire dissipated. Simultaneously, the Jesus movement (which proto-early Christianity was in those days, as a part of Judaism before the later split) was also trying to come to terms with the ramifications, since the destruction of Jerusalem also meant the original mother church lost all prestige and authority, leading to the rise of alternate power centers within the movement.

So, to whoever wrote Mark, the writer was trying to reassure his community that, yes, this is how people suffer and get persecuted because Jesus also suffered and was persecuted for his beliefs. Whether it's true or not, we actually do not know, and that is a question best left for faith rather than historical accuracy. What we do know is that Mark combined a bunch of oral traditions, a possible "sayings gospel" that must have existed (similar to the Gospel of Thomas in its structure and form, not necessarily in content), and delved into other sources, primarily the Tanakh in a pre-Masoretic form, to fill in gaps and provide linking narratives to tie it all together (let alone what later editors did to the Gospel through redaction and the addition of material, such as tacking on an additional ending that conforms with the ending in the other 3 Gospels when Mark's Gospel was designed to literally end with the empty tomb and people waiting, because that's the experience of persecution, as Jews, that Mark's community is familiar with).

It's because of that where we have to carefully approach the Gospel and ask ourselves - what did the writer mean by writing Jesus' trial as it is written? It is very likely blasphemy would not have been the actual charge used, since that much we know about Jesus' beliefs regarding that were pretty commonplace in 1st-century Palestine. Nor, for that matter, as a pious 1st century Palestinian Jew, would he have called himself a Messiah - though his disciples and followers surrounding him from the community may have believed that. Where it could come into problems would be the priests acting in place of Rome (and, in this case, to avoid Pilate's wrath) when it came to dealing with anyone who posed a potential challenge to the Empire. As a result, it would not have been dying "according to the Scriptures," but the Sadducees trying to translate something from Roman law into something that would fit the specific immediate context of early 1st-century Judea. That is what I mean about Jesus being seen as both seditious from a Roman point of view and the Sadducees being too overtly sensitive to ordinary criticism of their powers which everyone shared at that time.

So the writer of Mark is sending a dual message here. On one hand, suffering and being persecuted for their beliefs fits within the specific immediate post-First Revolt context of Mark's community. Maybe some of Mark's community were among the people who participated in the First Revolt and faced ridicule because of that. Maybe their views of Jesus were not quite in line with other early Jesus movement groups that have different views about Jesus. We don't know. What we do know is that by using the image of a suffering Jesus, and connecting it with prior narratives about people who suffer for the faith in the Tanakh that any Jew would be familiar with, including wholescale pilfering from the Book of Isaiah, the writer is comforting people in his community that everything will be OK because Jesus knows what the community is going through. On the other hand, tying it back to the OP, the writer is also using coded language - the blasphemy charge - to remind us of how aware people were about how challenges to the authority of Rome usually worked. In that case, excommunication and exile would seem the easier option. It would still be suffering, but it loses much of the immediate potency of connecting it with the First Revolt by granting Jesus a lighter punishment.
EDIT: For those saying that Jesus' actions were treasonous towards Rome, he was actually on record as justifying paying taxes to Rome (what he said was a bit more nuanced than that but it's close enough that many understood it that way) and specifically opposed armed insurrection (one of the reasons the "mob" more-or-less turned on him at the end).
At the same time, though, we honestly do not know if Jesus actually said that, or if that was a later interpolation by redactors who were trying to soften Jesus' radical message by not offending potential Gentile converts who were loyal to Rome. Which would not be unusual in the ancient world to tamper with other people's writings in that manner.
 
At the same time, though, remember that Mark (whoever the person was, as we still don't know who the person actually was apart from the title) was writing for a community who was still suffering from the trauma of the First Revolt, when the Romans sacked and destroyed both Jerusalem and especially the Temple. At that point, the Sadducees vanish from the record because whatever authority the priests had as intermediaries between Palestinian Jews and the Roman Empire dissipated. Simultaneously, the Jesus movement (which proto-early Christianity was in those days, as a part of Judaism before the later split) was also trying to come to terms with the ramifications, since the destruction of Jerusalem also meant the original mother church lost all prestige and authority, leading to the rise of alternate power centers within the movement.

So, to whoever wrote Mark, the writer was trying to reassure his community that, yes, this is how people suffer and get persecuted because Jesus also suffered and was persecuted for his beliefs. Whether it's true or not, we actually do not know, and that is a question best left for faith rather than historical accuracy. What we do know is that Mark combined a bunch of oral traditions, a possible "sayings gospel" that must have existed (similar to the Gospel of Thomas in its structure and form, not necessarily in content), and delved into other sources, primarily the Tanakh in a pre-Masoretic form, to fill in gaps and provide linking narratives to tie it all together (let alone what later editors did to the Gospel through redaction and the addition of material, such as tacking on an additional ending that conforms with the ending in the other 3 Gospels when Mark's Gospel was designed to literally end with the empty tomb and people waiting, because that's the experience of persecution, as Jews, that Mark's community is familiar with).

It's because of that where we have to carefully approach the Gospel and ask ourselves - what did the writer mean by writing Jesus' trial as it is written? It is very likely blasphemy would not have been the actual charge used, since that much we know about Jesus' beliefs regarding that were pretty commonplace in 1st-century Palestine. Nor, for that matter, as a pious 1st century Palestinian Jew, would he have called himself a Messiah - though his disciples and followers surrounding him from the community may have believed that. Where it could come into problems would be the priests acting in place of Rome (and, in this case, to avoid Pilate's wrath) when it came to dealing with anyone who posed a potential challenge to the Empire. As a result, it would not have been dying "according to the Scriptures," but the Sadducees trying to translate something from Roman law into something that would fit the specific immediate context of early 1st-century Judea. That is what I mean about Jesus being seen as both seditious from a Roman point of view and the Sadducees being too overtly sensitive to ordinary criticism of their powers which everyone shared at that time.

So the writer of Mark is sending a dual message here. On one hand, suffering and being persecuted for their beliefs fits within the specific immediate post-First Revolt context of Mark's community. Maybe some of Mark's community were among the people who participated in the First Revolt and faced ridicule because of that. Maybe their views of Jesus were not quite in line with other early Jesus movement groups that have different views about Jesus. We don't know. What we do know is that by using the image of a suffering Jesus, and connecting it with prior narratives about people who suffer for the faith in the Tanakh that any Jew would be familiar with, including wholescale pilfering from the Book of Isaiah, the writer is comforting people in his community that everything will be OK because Jesus knows what the community is going through. On the other hand, tying it back to the OP, the writer is also using coded language - the blasphemy charge - to remind us of how aware people were about how challenges to the authority of Rome usually worked. In that case, excommunication and exile would seem the easier option. It would still be suffering, but it loses much of the immediate potency of connecting it with the First Revolt by granting Jesus a lighter punishment.

At the same time, though, we honestly do not know if Jesus actually said that, or if that was a later interpolation by redactors who were trying to soften Jesus' radical message by not offending potential Gentile converts who were loyal to Rome. Which would not be unusual in the ancient world to tamper with other people's writings in that manner.
Actually this really would apply more to matthew than mark , mark was written for a gentile converts not jews as seen Mark has explanations of Jewish customs and translations of Aramaic expressions unlike matthew who states him because his audience would already know them.

I didn't think roman pagan conversts to the faith would care much for the temple maybe they would care about the death of their brethren there but not the system they were not jews and Paul was preaching to them 20 years before mark that they didn't need to follow their laws

Despite all of this mark saw it was important enough to put that jesus was tried because of blasphemy , so yeah all that you mentioned applies more for matthew .
It is totally posible for jesus to declare himself the messiah i mean many Jewish leaders military or not would did , i mean msny say mark presents jesus more like a man compared to the other gospels which present the man god

But mark also present a lot of things of the man god for one jesus says he can forgive sins when in judiaisim this was big no no ( and mark has to explains to us why since as mentioned his audience was not jewish )
Or saying that he was the son of man of daniel
Which was a big offense to the high priest as mark says

also jesus mark goes actually into detail that jesus would be rejected by the jews and pharisees .

So for the thing I mention the argument you mainly used about mark doing this to conectect to the jewish community doesn't really hold weight as most historians agree mark was written for a gentile convert audiencen possibly in the city of rome .
 
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The question your asking is what if Jesus didn't die on the cross, what would be the result? Assuming Jesus wasn't put to death later there would be no Christian Faith as we know it in the world today. The basis of Christianity is that Jesus died an innocent sacrifice for the sins of mankind, and rose from the dead, to offer mankind salvation. As Paul said “And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is vain, your faith also is vain.” Without the offer of salvation, and resurrection Christianity offers nothing that Judaism didn't already, and Christianity offered it to all mankind, not just the children of Abraham, and those who converted. The law of the first Covenant was too hard, so the second Covenant offered a better way. Weather one believes in the faith, or simply studies it in a scholarly manor that is the essence of the Christian message.
 
The question your asking is what if Jesus didn't die on the cross, what would be the result? Assuming Jesus wasn't put to death later there would be no Christian Faith as we know it in the world today. The basis of Christianity is that Jesus died an innocent sacrifice for the sins of mankind, and rose from the dead, to offer mankind salvation. As Paul said “And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is vain, your faith also is vain.” Without the offer of salvation, and resurrection Christianity offers nothing that Judaism didn't already, and Christianity offered it to all mankind, not just the children of Abraham, and those who converted. The law of the first Covenant was too hard, so the second Covenant offered a better way. Weather one believes in the faith, or simply studies it in a scholarly manor that is the essence of the Christian message.
Maybe in this timeline jesus becomes a seen as good jewish rabbi or heck even a prophet like elijah ( not thar much ) standing up against the corruption of israel
 
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