LeopoldPhilippe
Banned
In 1687 King James II of England issued a Declaration of Indulgence aiming at complete toleration for Catholics, Anglicans, and Protestant dissenters alike.
A second Declaration of Indulgence was issued in May 1688. The Archbishop of Canterbury and six bishops were put on trial for objecting to its being read out in churches.
Suppose no Declarations of Indulgences had been issued.
Does this make a difference for King James II?
A second Declaration of Indulgence was issued in May 1688. The Archbishop of Canterbury and six bishops were put on trial for objecting to its being read out in churches.
Suppose no Declarations of Indulgences had been issued.
Does this make a difference for King James II?