Is it possible for a Stuart dynasty to rule Spain rather than the Bourbons, the POD is after Henri of Navarre dies.
How would this ever happen. I don't know of the Stuarts marrying into any Iberian royal houses. Also, how could their ever be a Jacobite Spain, that would imply a Spain ruled by the Stuarts after 1688 when they lost the English throne. I am fairly certain that Jacobitism was a political movement associated specifically with restoring the Stuarts to the British throne(s). The Bourbon not coming to power in France would have huge implications for the French Wars of Religion, and incidentally Henri IV came to the French throne (or at least officially became the rightful King of France) about a decade and a half before the Stuarts came to the English throne.
kasumigenx, you are aware that people write history down in books right? Might I suggest reading one of these books, or even a wikipedia article (I find them quite dubious when compared to academic history), before you ask such a question.
I apologize for any impertinence, but, I mean, come on Jacobite Spain, really?
Scipio