Jacobite Spain

Is it possible for a Stuart dynasty to rule Spain rather than the Bourbons, the POD is after Henri of Navarre dies.
 
How would this ever happen. I don't know of the Stuarts marrying into any Iberian royal houses. Also, how could their ever be a Jacobite Spain, that would imply a Spain ruled by the Stuarts after 1688 when they lost the English throne. I am fairly certain that Jacobitism was a political movement associated specifically with restoring the Stuarts to the British throne(s). The Bourbon not coming to power in France would have huge implications for the French Wars of Religion, and incidentally Henri IV came to the French throne (or at least officially became the rightful King of France) about a decade and a half before the Stuarts came to the English throne.

kasumigenx, you are aware that people write history down in books right? Might I suggest reading one of these books, or even a wikipedia article (I find them quite dubious when compared to academic history), before you ask such a question.

I apologize for any impertinence, but, I mean, come on Jacobite Spain, really?

Scipio
 
How would this ever happen. I don't know of the Stuarts marrying into any Iberian royal houses. Also, how could their ever be a Jacobite Spain, that would imply a Spain ruled by the Stuarts after 1688 when they lost the English throne. I am fairly certain that Jacobitism was a political movement associated specifically with restoring the Stuarts to the British throne(s). The Bourbon not coming to power in France would have huge implications for the French Wars of Religion, and incidentally Henri IV came to the French throne (or at least officially became the rightful King of France) about a decade and a half before the Stuarts came to the English throne.

kasumigenx, you are aware that people write history down in books right? Might I suggest reading one of these books, or even a wikipedia article (I find them quite dubious when compared to academic history), before you ask such a question.

I apologize for any impertinence, but, I mean, come on Jacobite Spain, really?

Scipio

I suppose you could see Charles I's courtship of the Infanta Maria Anna being a success? James I/VI was courting her for his heir a long time as Philip III promised a very sufficient dowry for her, one which James could use to govern with in lieu of calling Parliament. Of course, Philip III may of just been dangling the possibility of the marriage to keep England out of the Thirty Years War, as there was talk of James providing his son-in-law in the Palatinate with monetary aid.

We could always make the Infanta a little less transigent. When Charles went to fetch her in 1625, she received him very coldly. Plus his arrival causes her to become quite smitten with him, so much that some of Philip's more outragous demands for the marriage are dropped (such as Charles staying behind in Spain for about a year as a practical hostage). Now, all that is required is Maria Anna's right to be practice her religion (as was promised to the Princess Henrietta Maria). This would give Charles I's children a mix of Stuart and Spanish Habsburg club... and also give them an important claim to the throne if Philip III and Philip IV kick the bucket. A long shot, but not completely impossible IMO...
 
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