Quick question:
I see the stock market crash of '29 and ensuing depression appear in nearly every post-1850 AH that reaches that mark.
Was it really that predestined?
I know WWI was a large factor, as was unfamiliarity with how volitile the stock market could be, but since the idea of economic "bubbles" has been well documented at least since the Tulip Bubble in Holland couldn't more fiscally-realistic measures have minimized or eliminated the crash?