Invalid 1796 US Presidential election

What if the results from Vermont in the 1796 US Presidential election were contested? Would the Supreme Court rule on the matter and what would the consequences be?
 
Nobody, including Jefferson, really doubted that Vermont had voted for Adams. The objections to counting its votes were purely technical and were decisively rejected by Jefferson himself: "I observe doubts are still expressed as to the validity of the Vermont election. Surely in so great a case, substance and not form should prevail. I cannot suppose that the Vermont constitution has been strict in requiring particular forms of expressing the legislative will. As far as my disclaimer may have any effect, I pray you to declare it on every occasion foreseen or not foreseen by me, in favor of the choice of the people substantially expressed, and to prevent the phaenomenon of a Pseudo-president at so early a day." http://founders.archives.gov/documents/Jefferson/01-29-02-0207

When the electoral votes were counted in Congress, there was not a single objection to the counting of Vermont for Adams.

I just don't see the Court interfering here, especially since its members had all been appointed by Washington. It would not be until years later that the first Democratic Republican justice would be appointed.
 
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