Question for anyone whom might have an opinion...
Is the following scenario regarding the Spanish and Neapolitan thrones possible?
The old Spanish Habsburg Empire (Spain, Belgium, Naples, Parma, etc) was divided after the War of Spanish Succession. Eventually, after several more wars, the Spanish Bourbons got back on the thrones of Naples and Parma, though by "junior branches".
In 1759, in the middle of the 7 Years War, Charles, King of Naples, inherited the throne of Spain from his elder (childless brother). Due to multiple treaty obligations, it was agreed that he would have to cede Naples to his younger brother (see Wikipedia entry below)
At that point, Charles was proclaimed King of Spain under the name of Charles III of Spain, respecting the third Treaty of Vienna, which stated he would not be able to join the Neapolitan and Sicilian territories to the Spanish throne. He was later given the title of Lord of the Two Sicilies. The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, that Charles had not ratified, foresaw the eventuality of his accession to Spain; thus Naples and Sicily went to his brother Philip, Duke of Parma, while the possessions of the latter were divided between Maria Theresa (Parma and Guastalla) and the King of Sardinia (Plaisance).
Charles did not want anything to do with the war. In reality, he only entered in 1762 because of British Royal Navy seizures of Spanish shipping and fear of total British domination in America with no hope of a French counterbalance to protect the Spanish Empire. It turns out that the Spanish performed poorly and were humiliated by the British in Cuba and the Philippines. Gibraltar, another Spanish target, was never taken.
In the early years of the 7 Years War, Charles of Naples was recruited by both sides:
1. France wanted a "Bourbon Family Compact".
2. Britain wanted a southern Italian alliance with Naples and Piedmont-Sardinia.
Charles of Naples (and later Charles III of Spain) saw no benefit to himself or his county(ies) for either and was determined to stay neutral both as King of Naples and later as King of Spain.
What if...there was a benefit?
If France and Austria (allies against Prussia and Britain) had offered Charles III to tear up the Treaties of Vienna or Aix-la-Chapelle and agreed to allow Naples and Spain to be unified under one King, would he jump?
The war was going poorly for France/Austria/Russia in 1759 and they may have jumped at the chance to gain an ally (or just avoid another enemy). I read nothing about Charles necessarily desiring to keep both thrones but he may have as he genuinely liked the Neopolitans and they liked him. Certainly, the Italians hated the loathsome Neopolitan Bourbons that were to come over the next century (terrible rulers). He was probably the most popular King Naples ever had.
Is this feasible?
Thanks.
Addition: What if Habsburg Austria was offered an "Incentive"?
Perhaps if the Grand Duchy of Tuscany, also destined by treaty for a "junior" branch of the Habsburgs, were allowed to be added to the "central" Habsburg monarchy?
Would this make a difference?
How would Piedmont-Sardinia react as they would have been expecting a piece of Parma for their silence on the original agreement?
Any chance Piedmont-Sardinia makes a rash action? It seems unlikely given they are surrounded by France, Spain(-Naples), Parma, Austria, Tuscany but the King may be so irate he tries invading Parma or southern France (at British instigation), counting on France, Spain and Austria being a little to busy to reply.
This is a longshot but odder things have happened.
Is the following scenario regarding the Spanish and Neapolitan thrones possible?
The old Spanish Habsburg Empire (Spain, Belgium, Naples, Parma, etc) was divided after the War of Spanish Succession. Eventually, after several more wars, the Spanish Bourbons got back on the thrones of Naples and Parma, though by "junior branches".
In 1759, in the middle of the 7 Years War, Charles, King of Naples, inherited the throne of Spain from his elder (childless brother). Due to multiple treaty obligations, it was agreed that he would have to cede Naples to his younger brother (see Wikipedia entry below)
At that point, Charles was proclaimed King of Spain under the name of Charles III of Spain, respecting the third Treaty of Vienna, which stated he would not be able to join the Neapolitan and Sicilian territories to the Spanish throne. He was later given the title of Lord of the Two Sicilies. The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, that Charles had not ratified, foresaw the eventuality of his accession to Spain; thus Naples and Sicily went to his brother Philip, Duke of Parma, while the possessions of the latter were divided between Maria Theresa (Parma and Guastalla) and the King of Sardinia (Plaisance).
Charles did not want anything to do with the war. In reality, he only entered in 1762 because of British Royal Navy seizures of Spanish shipping and fear of total British domination in America with no hope of a French counterbalance to protect the Spanish Empire. It turns out that the Spanish performed poorly and were humiliated by the British in Cuba and the Philippines. Gibraltar, another Spanish target, was never taken.
In the early years of the 7 Years War, Charles of Naples was recruited by both sides:
1. France wanted a "Bourbon Family Compact".
2. Britain wanted a southern Italian alliance with Naples and Piedmont-Sardinia.
Charles of Naples (and later Charles III of Spain) saw no benefit to himself or his county(ies) for either and was determined to stay neutral both as King of Naples and later as King of Spain.
What if...there was a benefit?
If France and Austria (allies against Prussia and Britain) had offered Charles III to tear up the Treaties of Vienna or Aix-la-Chapelle and agreed to allow Naples and Spain to be unified under one King, would he jump?
The war was going poorly for France/Austria/Russia in 1759 and they may have jumped at the chance to gain an ally (or just avoid another enemy). I read nothing about Charles necessarily desiring to keep both thrones but he may have as he genuinely liked the Neopolitans and they liked him. Certainly, the Italians hated the loathsome Neopolitan Bourbons that were to come over the next century (terrible rulers). He was probably the most popular King Naples ever had.
Is this feasible?
Thanks.
Addition: What if Habsburg Austria was offered an "Incentive"?
Perhaps if the Grand Duchy of Tuscany, also destined by treaty for a "junior" branch of the Habsburgs, were allowed to be added to the "central" Habsburg monarchy?
Would this make a difference?
How would Piedmont-Sardinia react as they would have been expecting a piece of Parma for their silence on the original agreement?
Any chance Piedmont-Sardinia makes a rash action? It seems unlikely given they are surrounded by France, Spain(-Naples), Parma, Austria, Tuscany but the King may be so irate he tries invading Parma or southern France (at British instigation), counting on France, Spain and Austria being a little to busy to reply.
This is a longshot but odder things have happened.
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