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This is probably ASB, but let's pretend it's not ASB for a second and just highly unlikely.

Is there a way to get classical-era India, preferably under the Gupta Empire at its height, to industrialise? I'm not very knowledgeable on the subject of classical-era India, but seeing as most early industrialisation TLs come out of either Northeast Asia or Europe it does beg the question.

From what I understand India during this time had a healthy trade relationship with both East Asia and the Graeco-Roman World (spread of ideas and goods), a thriving literary culture (including scientific literature to an extent), a decent textile industry, one reasonably-unified political entity controlling much of the densely-populated Gangetic Plain and quite built-up urban areas compared to what came after.

Places like Bengal have decent coal reserves right next to natural waterways, making coal easier to transport and making the invention of a steam engine to be used as an underground water-pump pretty worthwhile for mining deeper pockets of coal there. It is similar to Britain in this regard. Most of the Ganges River was navigable until the 19th century, and along with that Indians have had the ability to dig canals since before 2000 BC.

I'm not sure how bad structural factors are though. The caste system, although it is less restrictive under the Guptas than it was during early modernity, is still there and might just present a challenge to industrial development. On the other hand, it is nowhere near chattel slavery and Ancient India as far as I'm aware tended to not practice chattel slavery. Free enterprise/guilds might be another problem - I'm not really aware of what the situation with them was in India, and the practice of free enterprise was pretty instrumental to industrialisation in OTL Northwestern Europe.

Would industrialisation have been possible in India during the reign of the Guptas, and if not why not?
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