India and China colonial powers starting 1550

Lets say they got news of new lands in America and are interested.
China also got interested in what Siberia had at that time and takes control of the silk road(Central Asia)
While a little south India pick Iran(1550) and invade the Otoman empire eastern part arround 1560.
Trade routed arround Persian Golf and north Africa are taken arround 1650 and Cape colony as an indian trade center.
India replace Spain in south America.

China controls Indonezia,Filipine and California...
How would history change?
 
The treasure fleets led by Zheng He shows that China had the potential to become a colonial power. But the Confucian scholars were too powerful and too smart (in their own way) to let such a thing happen.
 
The treasure fleets led by Zheng He shows that China had the potential to become a colonial power. But the Confucian scholars were too powerful and too smart (in their own way) to let such a thing happen.

Another thing is the hatred of the neighbors of China against China.
 
What do you mean by India? In 1550 India is as disunited as Europe, and the closest we have to a major polity is the Suri Empire, soon to be conquered by the Mughals. Apart from that there's Vijayanagara in the south, but to talk of India as a geopolitical state, as opposed to a cultural area, is nonsense for the period.
 
As the other guy said, there's no such thing as "India" at this point in time.

Why the heck would Vijayanagar or China want to get involved in colonisation- there was nothing they needed. These were some of the richest lands on earth at this point
 
Why the heck would Vijayanagar or China want to get involved in colonisation- there was nothing they needed. These were some of the richest lands on earth at this point

I don't know. OTL saw a significant fraction of the New World's silver end up in China, right? And there is a strange incident in the 1590s when Chinese officials showed up in a fleet in the Philippines looking for "gold mountain"....
 

Sumeragi

Banned
1. India? What India?

2. Ming was already a colonial power. It's an empire comprised of several ethnic groups, in a form of occupation. Also, it couldn't get pass the Mongols to get to Siberia.
 
2. Ming was already a colonial power. It's an empire comprised of several ethnic groups, in a form of occupation. Also, it couldn't get pass the Mongols to get to Siberia.

That was basically why the people surrounding China hated China that is why no polity that exists now surrounding China except Japan, Korea and Vietnam copied the Chinese script.
 
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Anyway, what occurs to me and is mildly interesting is that in OTL we did have a Ming remnant that was based on trade and commerce, and managed to finance its war against the Qing using trade: Koxinga, or Zheng Zhengong. This makes me leery of presuming that a colonial empire would be valueless...
 
Anyway, what occurs to me and is mildly interesting is that in OTL we did have a Ming remnant that was based on trade and commerce, and managed to finance its war against the Qing using trade: Koxinga, or Zheng Zhengong. This makes me leery of presuming that a colonial empire would be valueless...
Sure, but there's a fair difference between Koxinga's trade network and outright control of Siberia. Having, say, a greater mercantile Chinese presence in Makassar could probably be done (and would be quite an interesting read!), but having the Imperial armies roll over the Mongols (somehow) and establish settlements willy-nilly on the River Ob just plain doesn't make sense.
 
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