Independent Scania 1658

Could Sweden instead of annexing Scania after the treaty of Roskilde instead have made it a semi-independent buffer state?

What effects would this have had? Likely none, I can't think of any atleast.
 
There would be a position of Scanian Duke that might become the centre of several dynastic intrigues, and when Scania has reverted to Danish possession in c. 1720 (since it was not joined with Sweden, and this makes it easier to abolish), the now landless duke and his entourage might get involved in things similar to what Stanislaw Leszczynski did, so we might get another Elsass-Lothringen area somewhere along a disputed border in Europe.
 
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