Independent New Spain

It seems to me that given the density and complexity of the conquered societies in Mesoamerica, given a less competent Spanish crown an ambitious Spanish governor might be able to break away, and the wealth from the gold mines hire them any number of mercenaries from Europe (that could get over, anyway). The Viceroy in Mexico was able to control a continent and globe-spanning empire, after all. But my knowledge of the immediate post-conquest period is sadly lacking. Is this plausible? What's the earliest possible divergence point?
 
It seems to me that given the density and complexity of the conquered societies in Mesoamerica, given a less competent Spanish crown an ambitious Spanish governor might be able to break away, and the wealth from the gold mines hire them any number of mercenaries from Europe (that could get over, anyway). The Viceroy in Mexico was able to control a continent and globe-spanning empire, after all. But my knowledge of the immediate post-conquest period is sadly lacking. Is this plausible? What's the earliest possible divergence point?
The idea of this thread is interesting
https://www.alternatehistory.com/discussion/showthread.php?t=122978
 
Maybe in 1640. Spain was involved in the Thirty Year's War, and fighting rebels in the Netherlands, Portugal and Catalonia (and facing minor revolts in Aragon, Andalusia and Naples).

Diego López Pacheco was the viceroy of New Spain. He was the cousin of the Duke of Bragança, who was crowned king in the Portugal revolt. Olivares feared Diego aligned with his cousin and join the rebellion and made him arrested.

Maybe Diego would be willing to rebel, and succeded and crowned himself as King of New Spain.
 
Maybe in 1640. Spain was involved in the Thirty Year's War, and fighting rebels in the Netherlands, Portugal and Catalonia (and facing minor revolts in Aragon, Andalusia and Naples).

Diego López Pacheco was the viceroy of New Spain. He was the cousin of the Duke of Bragança, who was crowned king in the Portugal revolt. Olivares feared Diego aligned with his cousin and join the rebellion and made him arrested.

Maybe Diego would be willing to rebel, and succeded and crowned himself as King of New Spain.
It´s good, I like it
 
Just posted a similar answer in another thread. :D

Problem with the Viceroy of New Spain declaring himself ruler is that New Spain was divided into Capitancy Generals or Kingdoms. What would happen if the other Captain Generals (Governors) or Governors did not support Pacheco in Mexico City.
Captaincy General (sp. Capitanía General) a division of a viceroyalty in colonial Spanish America, established in areas under risk of foreign invasion or Indian attack and governed by a Captain General, basically a militar authority.

Although under the nominal jurisdiction of their viceroys, captains general were practically viceroys, because of their special military functions and the considerable distance of their captaincies from the viceroyal capital, having a direct relationship with the king and the Council of the Indies, in Madrid.

Captaincies General and creation year:

* Santo Domingo (1540)
* Guatemala (1560)
* New Granada (1563), which became a viceroyalty in 1717.
* Philippines (1593)
*Yucatan (1617)
* Cuba (1764) See Below
* Venezuela (1777)
* Chile (1778).

The Portuguese also used this system in their colonies. In Brazil, the recipient of a captaincy was called a donatário.

Only Chile, Venezuela and New Granada were not part of New Spain. The other places on that above list including the Philippines were part of New Spain.

Cuba -The restructuring of the Captaincy General in 1764 was the first example of the Bourbon Reforms in America. In Cuba the changes included adding the provinces of Florida and Louisiana and granting more autonomy for these provinces.
The Louisiana Territory had become Spains again in 1763.
 
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