alternatehistory.com

Command economies came into existence after the Bol'shevik Russian revolution.
Ever since it has always been combined with communist regimes.

Now I ask: Is it conceivable to have command economies in the aristocratic
systems of the late 19th century?
(Yes, I mean "imperialist" not (only) in the sense of communist rhethorics.)

Let's imagine not the (seeming) perfectionist systems which prevailed in Eastern Europe
not long ago. Suppose that the nobility observes how their power is waning from two sides,
from democratic movements and from the economic influence of industrialist.
What if the nobility in power decides that at least the largest industrial plants
have to be in the hand of the government?
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