If Hitler hadn’t invaded the rest of Czechoslovakia, would the Allies still have died for Danzig?

Basically in the title. I’m interested in Hitler’s strategic motivation for invading Czechoslovakia outside of the Sudentenland in the first place - why did he do it? But if he stuck to the Munich Agreement, might the Treaty or Mutual Assistance never have come about and Hitler get a free hand in Poland?

If there is no Treaty, and Hitler does invade Poland, what do the Allies do when it becomes obvious he’ll keep it?
 
If Hitler had done the same with Poland as he did at the beginning in Czechoslovakia (annex Danzing and the corridor and puppet the rest) he could have gotten away with it leaving him with 2 puppet nations: Czechoslovakia and Poland
 
If Hitler had done the same with Poland as he did at the beginning in Czechoslovakia (annex Danzing and the corridor and puppet the rest) he could have gotten away with it leaving him with 2 puppet nations: Czechoslovakia and Poland

His problem would have been to find a Polish leader as "realistic" as Hacha.
 
Hitler's occupation of Czechoslovakia after the Sudeten agreement was the final straw that convinced the British and French that Hitler's word or signature on a treaty was worthless. Had he been satisfied with what he got at Munich then there would have been the possibility of some sort of negotiation over Danzig. Whether or not that would have worked, whether an agreement would have been reached and the Poles agree is not impossible but doubtful. Once it was claer that Hitler's word was worthless, this was foreclosed. IMHO Hitler invading Czechoslovakia after Munich was going to happen sooner or later, and with Poland you had to get that as stage one of Lebensraum as well as getting back German lands taken after WWI. Hitler was going to keep pushing as long as the British and French stayed willing to sell out the Eastern Europeans...
 
Occupying the rest of Czechoslovakia allowed the German military overspending and build up to continue by looting the country.
 
Hitler's occupation of Czechoslovakia after the Sudeten agreement was the final straw that convinced the British and French that Hitler's word or signature on a treaty was worthless. Had he been satisfied with what he got at Munich then there would have been the possibility of some sort of negotiation over Danzig. Whether or not that would have worked, whether an agreement would have been reached and the Poles agree is not impossible but doubtful. Once it was claer that Hitler's word was worthless, this was foreclosed. IMHO Hitler invading Czechoslovakia after Munich was going to happen sooner or later, and with Poland you had to get that as stage one of Lebensraum as well as getting back German lands taken after WWI. Hitler was going to keep pushing as long as the British and French stayed willing to sell out the Eastern Europeans...

What if Hitler simply switched the order of events after Munich? First Danzig, then Prague.
 

nbcman

Donor
What if Hitler simply switched the order of events after Munich? First Danzig, then Prague.
The Germans would have less leverage over Poland since their Army is weaker without seizing the Czech arms (and Czech gold) plus the Poles have a shorter border to defend without having to cover Slovakia while the Germans would have to defend from the Czechs trying to recover their lost territories if Germany goes to war with Poland. Of course the Czechoslovaks could also use a German - Polish war as an opportunity to recover the slices of territory that Poland and Hungary grabbed after Munich.
 
Basically in the title. I’m interested in Hitler’s strategic motivation for invading Czechoslovakia outside of the Sudentenland in the first place - why did he do it? But if he stuck to the Munich Agreement, might the Treaty or Mutual Assistance never have come about and Hitler get a free hand in Poland?

If there is no Treaty, and Hitler does invade Poland, what do the Allies do when it becomes obvious he’ll keep it?

The problem is that if there is going to be a war with Poland--or at least if Germany wants to be in the strongest possible position to threaten Poland with such a war in order to induce Poland to yield to German demands--Germany will want the Skoda Works.... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Škoda_Works
 

Lusitania

Donor
Nazi Germany needed the weapons from Czech as well as its gold and foreign reserves. Pus after calling the Allied bluff regarding occupying Rhine Valley, then uniting with Austria, getting the Sudentenland. He felt invincible. The capture of the remaining part of Czech and puppet Slovakia showed to the Germans he was right and nothing could stop the Germans. I guess the last nail in Poland's coffin was the agreement with Soviets, which eliminated the risk of a two front war which had been disastrous for the Germans in WWI.
 
Nazi Germany needed the weapons from Czech as well as its gold and foreign reserves. Pus after calling the Allied bluff regarding occupying Rhine Valley, then uniting with Austria, getting the Sudentenland. He felt invincible. The capture of the remaining part of Czech and puppet Slovakia showed to the Germans he was right and nothing could stop the Germans.

The other half of this is the Anglo French governments were neither pacifist nor 100% for Appeasement. Daladier & Camberlain both suspected war with Germany inevitable, but we're told by their military leaders there were unready. Buy us two years was the message. Does not matter if it's the Cezchs, Poles, Lithuanians, whatever. They are likely to be tossed off the sleigh to the wolf to gain the anxious & cynical Chamberlain the time he wants.

I guess the last nail in Poland's coffin was the agreement with Soviets, which eliminated the risk of a two front war which had been disastrous for the Germans in WWI.

This is long before the back door relationship between France and the USSR had been blackballed by Chamberlain's cabinet. At this point the Politburo regarded their French alignment as their best bet.
 

Lusitania

Donor
The other half of this is the Anglo French governments were neither pacifist nor 100% for Appeasement. Daladier & Camberlain both suspected war with Germany inevitable, but we're told by their military leaders there were unready. Buy us two years was the message. Does not matter if it's the Cezchs, Poles, Lithuanians, whatever. They are likely to be tossed off the sleigh to the wolf to gain the anxious & cynical Chamberlain the time he wants.



This is long before the back door relationship between France and the USSR had been blackballed by Chamberlain's cabinet. At this point the Politburo regarded their French alignment as their best bet.

Sort of the scenario that Turtledove spoke about in his series "war that came early". If the politicians had not headed the advise of the military and called Germany's bluff.
 
One way this can work without starting a war is if Germany cooperates with the Soviets. Germany lays claims to West Prussia, Posen, and Upper Silesia, while the Soviets do the same to East Poland. Against Germany alone, Poland is likely to stand its ground, and might still be able to count on Anglo-French support...but against Germany and the Soviet Union together, the Wallies might still be hesitant enough - unwilling to risk war with both the Soviets and the Germans at the same time - that the appeasement bunch decide not to guarantee anything to the Poles. Alone against the Soviets and the Germans and both seemingly threatening to invade, the Poles just might cave in.
 
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