To my knowledge, after he did this and with Munich broken, Britain's policy of appeasement headed by Chamberlain stopped. Does anyone disagree that if he had not invaded Czechoslovakia, broken the Munich Agreement, that he could make war with Poland without it escalating into a war with Britain and France? I think Poland would not have caved into German territorial demands, even with pressure from France and Britain. Also, what if he waited anywhere past 1939 to invade Poland?