If Frederick the Great loses East Prussia in 1763, do the partitions of Poland still happen?

Hither Pomerania is the portion of Pomerania that stayed with Germany post-WW2 (aka the small portion west of the Oder river). It's as simple as that.

And I'm guessing that Max Sinister meant Further Pomerania
Plus a strip on the east bank of the Oder including Stettin.
 
No, Sweden explicitly wanted that part of Pomerania back they lost in the Great Nordic War to Prussia.

It's the smaller part, but more valuable. Further Pomerania only has a few peasants on bad soil.
 
If the Russians get East Prussia, I imagine they would trade some land around and get land even closer to the mouth of the Vistula. Perhaps they end up doing what the Prussians did, which was squeeze the Polish economy for all it had. Actually, if the Emperor and Autocrat of All the Russias gains Ducal Prussia, then perhaps they can put themselves as a candidate for the Polish throne. Then again, hardly as if you needed land in or near Russia to be elected. Probably easier to just keep things chaotic, take some choice pieces of land for themselves. Hmm... How about whatever treaty there is gives East Prussia to Russia, the independence of Danzig is continued but used as an intermediary for certain transactions, while they pay the Russians a hunk of their income form tolls, and the Prussians end up with the remaining territory of Prussia outside of the HRE? The last part being doubtful.
 
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