As above:
Assume France gets Belgium (Austrian Netherlands) in a swap after the War of Bavarian Succession around 1780ish.
A large portion of the population speaks Dutch and one of Revolutionary France's primary aims was lingual unity.
With such a large portion of Belgium (now French Netherlands) speaking another language, does the Convention have to tone down their demands?
Would this indirectly aid in Bretons, Occitans, Alsacians, etc in keeping their native tongues, at least a while longer?
Thanks.