How would no 3/5's Compromise have affected the future of Slavery?

Just as it says: Assume no 3/5 of a man for electoral vote and tax purposes.

How, and at what point, would this affect the continuance or expansion of slavery?

How would the US finances be affected?

If blacks made up about 15% of the population, that means 10% of the tax revenue would be lost. Any major divergences there?
 
How would you count the slaves for population and for taxation then? Would the slaves not be counted for population and thus apportionment? But would they also not be counted for purposes of taxation?

The North did not want the slaves counted for population, since it would give the South a disproportionate share of the House of Representatives. But it also wanted the slaves counted for purposes of taxation. The south had the opposite stance, naturally.

So how would the slaves be counted for purposes of population and taxation in this scenario?
 
First of all, with respect to taxation, the clause applied only to *direct* taxes. Congress for many decades did not impose any direct taxes, at least as defined by the Supreme Court https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hylton_v._United_States and would have been unlikely to do so with or without that clause. Tariffs were the main source of revenue.

As for apportionment, something like the clause seems to me to have been inevitable. Counting slaves equally with the free population would have been objectionable to the North as assuring southern domination; not counting them at all would be equally objectionable to the South as assuring domination by the North.
 
If it wasn't for the 3/5 clause Adams would have had enough electoral votes to win against Jefferson and therefore Adams would have had a second term, the election wouldn't have gone to the House and there wouldn't have been a need for the 12th amendment.
 
A thought I had was slaves being counted fully for the census, but they're given the vote.

The slave states agree, they get extra representation and are confident no black will ever actually be able to vote.
 
A thought I had was slaves being counted fully for the census, but they're given the vote.

The slave states agree, they get extra representation and are confident no black will ever actually be able to vote.

Even poor whites didnt have the vote at this time why would they ever extend it to slaves.
 
Top