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So, as some might know, I started a thread asking which one of the sons of Felipe V should establish a lasting dynasty in Spain, and one of the commentators put Louis I as it would enable Felipe to abdicate as he did in 1724, and potentially make it easier for him to reclaim his place in the succession for the French throne. Now, how likely is that to be successful? Would the Treaty of Utrecht be negated, or would others worry that the rigid interpretation of Salic Law would lead to another union under his son Louis?

If so, then, another query I have is this: In 1712, I believe, Felipe was offered a confirmation of his place in the succession for France, if he would renounce his rights to the Spanish throne in favour of his brother the Duke of Berry. Now Felipe refused. However, what would be needed, either for Felipe to accept this, and for Charles, Duke of Berry to become Carlos III of Spain, and for Felipe perhaps through a series of unfortunate events to the mainline, to become King Felipe VII of France? Alternatively, what would be needed for Felipe to refuse the throne of Spain in 1700, when Carlos II dies and for his brother Charles, Duke of Berry to accept the mantle instead?

Essentially, my question is this, what is the best way to ensure Felipe keeps his place in the French succession, and to enable a potential succession between 1715-1724?

Thanks.
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