How much visigothic was the Kingdom of Asturias?

Before you ask, yes I came with this doubt because crusader Kings II

Now, according to the wikipedia, since the fall of the visigothic Kingdom to the moors, the visigothic culture (that wasn't even so gothic anymore) pretty much vanished, but it also says that the kingdom of asturais was founded by a Visigothic nobleman

We already had a discussion here months ago about how gothic could spain get if wasn't for the moor invasion, and it seems that one way or another they would be latinized, but this isn't the subject this time

i just want to know: How much visigothic was the kingdom of asturias? Did they had any gothic speaking minority? Did the court spoke gothic? Did they used visigothic architecture or gothic titles?
 
We already had a discussion here months ago about how gothic could spain get if wasn't for the moor invasion, and it seems that one way or another they would be latinized, but this isn't the subject this time

I must have missed that, and it sounds interesting. Could you point me in that general direction?
 
What time period exactly? Asturias in 730 was very different to what it was in 800, which was again different to it in 1000.

When it was founded, the Goths had only been overrun 5 years ago. In 1000, it was much more 'Spanish' than 'Gothic'

- BNC
 
I must have missed that, and it sounds interesting. Could you point me in that general direction?

Here: https://www.alternatehistory.com/fo...d-culture-remain-relevant-to-this-day.391291/

The best case scenario was made by english nationalist, this one:

"Overtime Gothic lifestyle is seen as the paramount of society within the region leading to being gradually adopted my all officials.
Say by 1500 you have a strong Gothic upper class with all educated and or of power being assimilated into the culture, 10-15,000 Goths in total could be around at this point.
As colonisation really kicks off, it ends up being for Goths only and so leads it being spread globally and have a rapid population increase.
By the Industrial Revolution I could easily see a population of at least 500,000 Goths throughout the Empire.
Ballpark figure today being 2-5 Million."

What time period exactly? Asturias in 730 was very different to what it was in 800, which was again different to it in 1000.

When it was founded, the Goths had only been overrun 5 years ago. In 1000, it was much more 'Spanish' than 'Gothic'

The mid-late 9th century
 
The mid-late 9th century

By then the only remains of a Visigothic nation would be parts of how it run its government, but even then it preferred to take stuff from the Romans. The Gothic language never really became more widespread than Latin anywhere, so the people probably would have spoken a Spanish corruption of Latin, with some peasants speaking a corruption of Gothic.

Now, according to the wikipedia, since the fall of the visigothic Kingdom to the moors, the visigothic culture (that wasn't even so gothic anymore) pretty much vanished, but it also says that the kingdom of asturais was founded by a Visigothic nobleman
The culture certainly lasted for as long as there were people who remembered the previous kingdom, so until at least 750.
We already had a discussion here months ago about how gothic could spain get if wasn't for the moor invasion, and it seems that one way or another they would be latinized, but this isn't the subject this time
More correctly, the Goths tried to supplant Latin, not the other way around. In the Dark Ages, pretty much everyone of importance spoke Latin in places that had been under the Romans and not taken over by Islam. The only exception to this is the British kingdoms, which were the least Romanised of all places they owned and were inundated by Saxons.

Visigothic Spain couldn't have become too much more Gothic than it was, as they would have to fight a memory of 6 centuries of roman rule. It would be like trying to force everyone in a couple of US states to suddenly speak Italian.
i just want to know: How much visigothic was the kingdom of asturias? Did they had any gothic speaking minority? Did the court spoke gothic? Did they used visigothic architecture or gothic titles?

By 850: A memory of Visigothic. Yes, a small one. No, they would have spoke Latin. Yes to the architecture (but they used more Roman stuff), don't know about the titles.

- BNC
 
By then the only remains of a Visigothic nation would be parts of how it run its government, but even then it preferred to take stuff from the Romans. The Gothic language never really became more widespread than Latin anywhere, so the people probably would have spoken a Spanish corruption of Latin, with some peasants speaking a corruption of Gothic.


The culture certainly lasted for as long as there were people who remembered the previous kingdom, so until at least 750.

More correctly, the Goths tried to supplant Latin, not the other way around. In the Dark Ages, pretty much everyone of importance spoke Latin in places that had been under the Romans and not taken over by Islam. The only exception to this is the British kingdoms, which were the least Romanised of all places they owned and were inundated by Saxons.

Visigothic Spain couldn't have become too much more Gothic than it was, as they would have to fight a memory of 6 centuries of roman rule. It would be like trying to force everyone in a couple of US states to suddenly speak Italian.


By 850: A memory of Visigothic. Yes, a small one. No, they would have spoke Latin. Yes to the architecture (but they used more Roman stuff), don't know about the titles.

- BNC


Thank you very much
 
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