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Something of a national topic, but I'm curious.

Obviously, by 1800, let alone 1900, the Balkan states were much weaker and less developed than Western and Central Europe. But how much of this was due to the Ottomans, and how much of this was due to preexisting conditions in the region?

In other words, if you replace the Ottomans with a Byzantine rump state in Greece, a Bulgarian Empire, etc., would the region have been more developed?
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