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A very quick question, was there any reason why Joseph I Holy Roman Emperor married his wife Wilhemine in 1699? Considering the five year age gap between the two of them, one might have thought that they'd marry sooner, perhaps around the early 1690s. If they had done so, could this have perhaps increased their chances of having a surviving son or two? The reason I ask is that after the birth of their daughters were no more children, now Joseph did catch syphilis which played a big role, but even before then there doesn't seem to have been much sign of pregnancies after 1701/02.
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