Holy Ottoman Empire?

So, in my AP World History textbook, it is said that had Muhammad Ali not been defeated in 1839 and the British and French not intervened in Syria, it was likely that Egypt would have become an independent kingdom within the Ottoman Empire. So what if the Egyptians had settled on that treaty instead of continuing into Anatolia? Would this solution be implemented through the Ottoman Empire as a solution to separatist movements? Unlikely, but it's a cool thought nonetheless.
 
This also would require the Ottoman Sultan to use his title as Caliph of Islam for more than just an excuse to invade any land with Islamic people in it.
 
Personally, I think the inevitable result of this is total Egyptian independence from the Ottoman Empire within a matter of years or decades.
 

Keenir

Banned
So, in my AP World History textbook, it is said that had Muhammad Ali not been defeated in 1839 and the British and French not intervened in Syria, it was likely that Egypt would have become an independent kingdom within the Ottoman Empire. So what if the Egyptians had settled on that treaty instead of continuing into Anatolia? Would this solution be implemented through the Ottoman Empire as a solution to separatist movements? Unlikely, but it's a cool thought nonetheless.

so, what's the difference between that and a millet?

just curious...if there's a difference, it might be a solution.
 
This also would require the Ottoman Sultan to use his title as Caliph of Islam for more than just an excuse to invade any land with Islamic people in it.

Huh? The Ottomans didn't invade anyone after 1683. Nor did they use the Caliphal title until the end of the 18th c, and not really much until the late 19th.
 
So, in my AP World History textbook, it is said that had Muhammad Ali not been defeated in 1839 and the British and French not intervened in Syria, it was likely that Egypt would have become an independent kingdom within the Ottoman Empire. So what if the Egyptians had settled on that treaty instead of continuing into Anatolia? Would this solution be implemented through the Ottoman Empire as a solution to separatist movements? Unlikely, but it's a cool thought nonetheless.

The empire already was pretty much like that. By 1876 there were the following autonomous states within the Ottoman Empire:

Khedivate of Egypt (which also controlled Sudan, under different legal conditions)
Mutasarrifiyya of Mount Lebanon
Beylik of Samos
Principalities of Wallachia and Moldavia (separate states with the same prince)
Principality of Serbia
Montenegro
Beylik of Tunis
Monastic State of Mount Athos
 

Thande

Donor
The empire already was pretty much like that. By 1876 there were the following autonomous states within the Ottoman Empire:

Khedivate of Egypt (which also controlled Sudan, under different legal conditions)
Mutasarrifiyya of Mount Lebanon
Beylik of Samos
Principalities of Wallachia and Moldavia (separate states with the same prince)
Principality of Serbia
Montenegro
Beylik of Tunis
Monastic State of Mount Athos

I agree most of those qualify, but wouldn't Wallachia and Moldavia be more like independent states on paper that just happen to be Ottoman protectorates under deep Ottoman influence?

At least that's what they look like constitutionally to me, although then again there is the fact that the Prince was usually appointed on the Sultan's say-so...
 
I agree most of those qualify, but wouldn't Wallachia and Moldavia be more like independent states on paper that just happen to be Ottoman protectorates under deep Ottoman influence?

At least that's what they look like constitutionally to me, although then again there is the fact that the Prince was usually appointed on the Sultan's say-so...

The Ottoman Sultan was the legal sovereign of the Principalities until the Treaty of Berlin. His influence over them by 1876 was virtually nil, but we're drawing parallels to the Holy Roman Empire here.
 

Thande

Donor
The Ottoman Sultan was the legal sovereign of the Principalities until the Treaty of Berlin. His influence over them by 1876 was virtually nil, but we're drawing parallels to the Holy Roman Empire here.

Hmm, seems I misunderstood the constitutional situation there.

What about the Khanate of the Crimea prior to its conquest by the Russians? Was that just an Ottoman ally or would you call it an autonomous state within the Empire?
 
Hmm, seems I misunderstood the constitutional situation there.

What about the Khanate of the Crimea prior to its conquest by the Russians? Was that just an Ottoman ally or would you call it an autonomous state within the Empire?

The Crimean Khanate was much more a dependency of the empire than were the Principalities at the end of their association with the empire. I would probably classify it as a vassal state. It had a largely independent foreign policy, but the Sultan appointed the Khan, and the Ottomans directly annexed the coast of the Crimea (taking it from Italian states). The Khanate was dependent on the Ottomans for modern equipment and technical help.
 
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