Hitler's Germany fosters Italian land grant.

Is it possible for Italy, instead of the Soviet Union, provided bases in which the German armed forces can be properly trained and supplied?​

I remember reading somewhere that Stalin provided areas within Soviet territory for the German millitary to prepare as well as providing crucial tactics and discipline from Russian officers.​

So what impact would a Italian sponsored Germany fare before and after the war? How could Mussolini be presuaded to undertake such actions? And what would become of the German-Soviet relationship without all the support the provided from OTL?​

Lets add some limitations; time period is between Mussolini's rise to power in 1922 to the outbreak of World War II, 1939.

(AN: Misformated the title. Just pertend it says "Mussolini Fosters Germany's Military").​
 
even without that military aid they still were partners in the invasion of poland also didn't Mussolini hate hitler
 
Unlikely. Unlike SU Italy wasn't a pariah state and as such unwilling to risk being caught helping Germany bypass Versailles treaty.

And Italy wasn't pro-German until mid-1930s, prior to that there were some serious isues between them, ostly Austria and South tyrol.
 
Unlikely. Unlike SU Italy wasn't a pariah state and as such unwilling to risk being caught helping Germany bypass Versailles treaty.

And Italy wasn't pro-German until mid-1930s, prior to that there were some serious isues between them, ostly Austria and South tyrol.

Well, if Hitler was more negotiable and Mussolini more assertive, could some sort of agreement be concluded in 1937-1938? Perhaps using some tid-bits of Austria as bargaining chip?

Is their no way for this to be realistically possible? Also, what would the consequences be for Germany if they had no other country willing to herlp in preparing their millitary? Would Hitler decide right then and their to publically reject the Treat of Versailles?

Sorry if I'm asking too much.
 
Well, if Hitler was more negotiable and Mussolini more assertive, could some sort of agreement be concluded in 1937-1938? Perhaps using some tid-bits of Austria as bargaining chip?

At that point it hardly matters anymore. Germany considered VT null and void and nobody did anything about it so there is no need for Germany to hide their activities or training. In fact it even increases chances of people peeking into their way of thinking more.

Is their no way for this to be realistically possible? Also, what would the consequences be for Germany if they had no other country willing to herlp in preparing their millitary? Would Hitler decide right then and their to publically reject the Treat of Versailles?

Sorry if I'm asking too much.

I don't think so. It would require Italy being pariah state and that would ahve to be result of different moves during WW1 which would in turn rewrite entire inter war period.
 
In any event, while Italy is not a small country, it is hard to see that this kind of thing would not be quickly known to the wider world in some detail, Italy being a place of significant attraction to foreigners then and now. What use would it be for Germany to send people to exercise in Italy if it knew unfriendly foreign powers would be well aware of what was happening?
 
In any event, while Italy is not a small country, it is hard to see that this kind of thing would not be quickly known to the wider world in some detail, Italy being a place of significant attraction to foreigners then and now. What use would it be for Germany to send people to exercise in Italy if it knew unfriendly foreign powers would be well aware of what was happening?

What if the training takes place in Italian Libya, a relatively remote area with plenty of open space?
 
Soviet bases were more useful because the Soviet Union was very much a pariah in international politics, and willing to cut deals with few questions asked. Because of it's isolation, compared to Italy, Germany's treaty violations were less likely to be discovered.
 
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