Hitler killed by a British sniper in WWI

Not really, for two reasons. First, there was a great deal of far right regimes in interwar Europe, some of them as or even more antisemitic than DVNP, and none of them went more extreme than applying informal social discrimination of Jews, until they got in bed with the Nazis. Second, as I said the DVNP model was an idealized Kaiserreich, and under that regime legal discrimination against the Jews has been conspicously absent, as you recognize. Therefore, at the very worst the regime would encourage antisemitic social prejudice, but thee would not be legal discrimination.

Firstly, religious discrimination was well and alive in most pre-WW2 far right regimes. Many civil cervice (Beamte) positions were legally to be only filled with persons of a Christian denomination. The actual Nazi invention in terms of antisemitism was using the racial definition to exclude and in the end murder Jews. The Jews who were successful in the Kaiserreich were either suppressing the information on their religious affiliation, or ostentatively broke with the jewish community (see Fritz Haber), or were successful via business where no legal discrimination was possible or desired by the government.
Of course it is easier to change religious affiliation than to change your parents, and by the end of 19th century the percentage of people who saw formal religious affiliation as exactly that - a form to be filled - was quite high, but it was a discrimination nevertheless.

Secondly, the goal of DVNP was an idealized Kaiserreich - the sort of Kaiserreich that, as with most reactionary goals, never existed in the first place. The fact that discrimination against Jews was rather limited in the Kaiserreich has no bearing on what was to be instituted in this Kaiserreich 2.0; FWIW, if the right persons ended in charge of the DVNP-led Kaiserreich renaissance the lack of legal discrimination of Jews in the Weimar republic and it's existence (in limited form) in the old Kaiserreich migth end up as one of the defining differences, and to be corrected and over-corrected with the advent of Kaiserreich 2.0.

That said, the chances that DVNP might pull off anything like that is rather slim - we are talking about goals, not about the actual feasibility. DVNP alone would not be able to organize the overturn of the Weimar republic, it would need to form a coalition of forces. Depending on which bedfellows they choose, the resulting state might take on a lot of different forms.
 
I would nevertheless like to add that even a worst-case-scenario for a DNVP&Co establishment of a Kaiserreich 2.0 wouldn't see Anti-Semitism on the scale of the 1930s 3rd Reich - the Nuremberg Laws would be hard to imagine, likewise most of the organized/encouraged violence à la November 9th, 1938.

A "soft" anti-semitic (and non-racial) pressure might even promote what many Jewish sources in the 1920s predicted/feared: the end of German "Judentum" through complete assimilation.
 

Eurofed

Banned
Oh, I have no difficulty envisaging the neo-Kaiserreich enforcing some degree of mild religious-based legal discrimination such as putting limitations to civil service jobs for non-Christians. However, I deem it extremely unlikley that they would enforce anything similar to the Nuremburg laws, both in severity and on a racial basis. Those things were unheard of in the European interwar far right regimes, without the Nazis.

My main objection was that without the Nazis, we are almost surely not going to see anything like the Nuremburg laws or the Kristallnacht. "Mild" forms of religious-based legal discrimination are quite possible, however.
 
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