Hitler exaggerate his demands in Munich

WI Hitler decided to finish Czechoslovakia at once and demands not only Sudetenland bit also protectorate over rest of Czechia ( with excuse of protecting Germans from possible Czech repressions) and independence for Slovakia. He is determined to invade Czechoslovakia if his demands are rejected. What would happen? Would UK and France let Hitler to grab all Czechoslovakia to buy time?
 
It's hard to put a limit on the pusillanimity of the powers, but there is one, as OTL Poland shows, and I think that increased demand might reach it. AFAIK Hitler wasn't wanting to start a war at Munich, so if he sees that his demands are going too far, he may back off to what he asked for OTL.
 
No, but I don't think they can be brought to actively agree to control over all Czechoslovakia. Likely result is a negotiation breakdown, not an Allied ultimatum.
 
Sudetenland was majority ethnic German. Given the whole post WWI 'self-determination' ideals, they 'should' have been in Germany. Hitler had a strong hand to play there. The rest of Czechia? Not at all. There's no way that even Chamberlain could have deluded himself that that was 'reasonable'.

A German invasion (given the then weak German army) against the teeth of Czech defenses would have gutted the German army, at best. Quite possibly got the West and the Soviets as allies of Czechoslovakia against the Germans, and WWII never happens.

Sure, the Brits and the French weren't ready in '38. But neither was Germany.
 
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