Hitler doesn't invade Czechoslovakia

What if Hitler doesn't invade Czechoslovakia in 1939 so that there is never an Anglo French guarantee to Poland. However he goes ahead with the Nazi Soviet pact and divides Poland as in OTL. Does Hitler secure Poland's destruction without getting into a war with Britain and France.
 
If Hitler doesn't occupy Bohemia; the British and French may go along with Hitler's bullying on the corridor and Danzig

Bohemia represented a shift, the Rhineland, the Sudentland, and Austria all represented the will (more or less) of the people who lived there wanting to go back to Germany.

The corridor and Danzig would have represented much the same and Poland was hardly the nicest caretaker of it's German minority. If Poland submitted on the issue I wonder if Hitler would have attacked them at all. He put to paper that he didn't want to and preferred a rump polish buffer state to keep germany from having a common border with russia (mid 30's hitler didn't have all the dreams of 1941 hitler)
 
Well Hitler was an unpredictable opportunist, i know that the German economy was in a terrible state being part of the reason for invading Czechoslovakia.
It's intruiging to wonder what might have happened if Hitler had been able to stimulate an uprising in slovakia followed by a Polish Hungarian invasion of slovakia, leaving the czech republic. Hitler might have been able to masquerade as some quarantor of Czech independence or used a Polish invasion of Slovakia as a prelude to war.
 
What if Hitler doesn't invade Czechoslovakia in 1939 so that there is never an Anglo French guarantee to Poland. However he goes ahead with the Nazi Soviet pact and divides Poland as in OTL. Does Hitler secure Poland's destruction without getting into a war with Britain and France.

Another possibility being that he does not secure Poland without a war, is unable to make a non-aggression pact with Stalin because the Czechs have not been abandoned (which may or may not have been Stalin's catalyst for moving towards Germany), and the Czechs throw their army onto the scales such that Germany is fighting on three fronts - eastern, western, southern.
 
If Hitler doesn't occupy Bohemia; the British and French may go along with Hitler's bullying on the corridor and Danzig
Bohemia represented a shift
(...)
If Poland submitted on the issue I wonder if Hitler would have attacked them at all. He put to paper that he didn't want to and preferred a rump polish buffer state to keep germany from having a common border with russia (mid 30's hitler didn't have all the dreams of 1941 hitler)

I wonder if Germany would actually ask for the corridor - in OTL Germany only demanded Danzig and free passage across the corridor, but not the territory itself. I suppose Britain and France would still be in appeasement mode, and Poland would agree to this for lack of other options.

The interesting question is what Poland does once Hitler inevitably crosses the line and the guarantees start to roll in from London. Will Poland decide to accept them anyway, or will it conclude that since Germany currently has no demands against it, it will be best to remain neutral and wait to see what happens next. In OTL Poland hoped that the French 'threat' to Germany's western flank would discourage Hitler from attacking at all. If he demonstrates that he is completely unafraid of France, this rationale disappears and Poland probably declines Anglo/French overtures and remains neutral. (One possible way to have this happen would be if Hitler decided to leave Poland and go after Yugoslavia - the obvious place to get the plunder needed to sustain Germany's economy. Britain and France declare war, Hitler laughs in their faces and they do not react as Yugoslavia is overrun.) In the longer term, Hitler probably gets yet another ally in 1941 - which, I think, is what he originally wanted.

the Rhineland, the Sudentland, and Austria all represented the will (more or less) of the people who lived there wanting to go back to Germany.

The corridor and Danzig would have represented much the same and Poland was hardly the nicest caretaker of it's German minority.

Many Germans might consider it the same, and London and Paris probably wouldn't care. But unlike Danzig and the Sudetenland, the corridor had an overwhelming Polish majority in 1939, and I have heard little evidence of their desire to return to Germany.
 
What if Hitler doesn't invade Czechoslovakia in 1939 so that there is never an Anglo French guarantee to Poland. However he goes ahead with the Nazi Soviet pact and divides Poland as in OTL. Does Hitler secure Poland's destruction without getting into a war with Britain and France.

Without the invasion of Czechoslovakia Hitler has a problem running out of foreign currency. Central bank in prague had large reserve of foreign currency. This creates a problem with imports of strategic material for the rearmament programme and food imports.
Also he does not get access to the Skoda tank works or the Czechoslovakia's tanks.
Skoda was the second largest tank maker in western europe after Kurps.
 
Without the invasion of Czechoslovakia Hitler has a problem running out of foreign currency. Central bank in prague had large reserve of foreign currency. This creates a problem with imports of strategic material for the rearmament programme and food imports.
Also he does not get access to the Skoda tank works or the Czechoslovakia's tanks.
Skoda was the second largest tank maker in western europe after Kurps.

Germany hardly required any of that to take out Poland.

The question is how the Soviets and Czechs play their hands with a threat to Poland prior to Germany securing its southern border. Prague and Warsaw were on bad terms, but Prague was allied to France and associated with the USSR. Is Stalin more interested in the opportunity for expansion, (which required cooperation with Germany) or security (which required cooperation with France)?
 
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