What if Hitler did not bribe the German generals?
I know it would be a foolish mistake. But suppose that in 1940, for whatever reason Hitler does not even think to bribe marshals, generals and admirals on a standing basis from the discretionary Chancellery funds.
What will the effects be? The generals and admirals, not receiving kickbacks from the slush funds, might start being restive, earlier than in OTL. They were well paid, but the underhand payments more than doubled their incomes, and the purpose of those bribes was obvious: a reward for their supine acceptance of Hitler's wild dreams.
Might the generals start thinking about getting rid of Hitler, earlier than in OTL? In larger numbers than in OTL? Would they feel less bound? Would they voice more objections? When and how would they act upon those thoughts?
I know it would be a foolish mistake. But suppose that in 1940, for whatever reason Hitler does not even think to bribe marshals, generals and admirals on a standing basis from the discretionary Chancellery funds.
What will the effects be? The generals and admirals, not receiving kickbacks from the slush funds, might start being restive, earlier than in OTL. They were well paid, but the underhand payments more than doubled their incomes, and the purpose of those bribes was obvious: a reward for their supine acceptance of Hitler's wild dreams.
Might the generals start thinking about getting rid of Hitler, earlier than in OTL? In larger numbers than in OTL? Would they feel less bound? Would they voice more objections? When and how would they act upon those thoughts?