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Here is an interesting supposition.

In 1940 Hitler launches an attack through the Ardennes and bypasses the Maginot Line resulting in the catastrophic collapse of French defenses.

The French fully expected that Hitler would try a variation of the Schliefen Plan of World War I. They had sent troops into Belgium to counter that possibility.

But, what if Hitler did exactly what the French thought would be his least likely option? Namely, attacking a fixed point on the Maginot Line.

Here's the idea. Hitler (or his generals) choose a strategic location on the line and then hit it with everything the Wehrmacht and Luftwaffe can throw at it. Bear in mind the Germans successfully captured the Liege forts during their assault in Belgium using an air assault tactic. Now what if a similar tactic were used on one key fort? Included here is the use of non-lethal chemical agents to further stress the fort's defenses.

Once the German blitzkrieg breaks through since the French think breaching the Maginot Line is impossible there are next to no troops behind said fortification. The Germans then sweep into France.

So, assuming this situation does the Battle of France last longer or shorter? Also, how does this affect the Allied strategy later in the war?
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