Higher French birthrate

What if between 1800 and the early 1900s, France had a birth rate only slightly below the rest of Europe? In 1800 France was the most populous country in Europe, but by the time WWI started they lagged behind Germany, Russia, AH, and Britain was on par with them.

I've seen some suggest that French inheritance laws had a lot to do with it, some say it was the lack of industrialization relative to Britain or Germany, some say it was cultural, and there are other explaination and theories out there. Feel free to debate what would have caused France's demographic collapse.

Besides the causes, what would the effect be if between the early 1800s and early 1900s, France had their population grow from around 30 million, to around 60-70 million? How would this effect the power structure of Europe? Of French politics and culture? Of French colonization efforts around the world?
 
Napoleon's code is one reason as it made equal inheritance. However, while the rest of Europe had population booms--France had already had hers in the 17th and 18th century. Even in the 18th century the birthrate was slowing, especially in the north. There were certain forms of primitive birth control used; people married later, and they tended to have less kids.
 
Actually, France had her biggest boom in the 12th/13th c. reaching the biggest disparity vs. everywhere else by the 14th c. after which it had several cycles of population reduction (Plague, Englishmen, Italian Wars, Wars of Religion) but it always recovered pretty well, though it wasn't increasing the lead.

By the 18th c. both Russia and Britain doubled once and were on their way to doubling twice, France barely doubled since the early middle ages.

There's definitely an early PoD involved there, I think.
 
Napoleon's code is one reason as it made equal inheritance. However, while the rest of Europe had population booms--France had already had hers in the 17th and 18th century. Even in the 18th century the birthrate was slowing, especially in the north. There were certain forms of primitive birth control used; people married later, and they tended to have less kids.
That's is not true no link have been made between Napoleon code and french birthrate decline if it was the case all country who have adopted it would have the same decline furthermore you could still write a will to deal with inheritance...
 

FDW

Banned
It might make more France more confident in itself, feeling it to be more capable of handling it's rivals on it's own.
 
Maybe it dropped after 1800 because a lot of French families didn't see the point in having lots of sons when another Napoleon might conscript those to go fight & die trying to conquer the world?
 
The casualties from the Revolution and Empire wars definitely played a part here since we are talking about possibly up to 2 million young men dying which is not a small number. The instability created by the Revolution also definitely played another part, had the Vendée Wars not happened for example, western France could have at least one extra million inhabitants today.

Inheritance laws played a part to a degree, especially in southern France, parts of whom have a lower population today than they had back in 1850 or even 1800 for some départements ...

The lack of agricultural modernisation compared to Britain and the Netherlands did not help either ...
 
There is a certain number of reasons, but the historian don't seem to agree on which.

Like DrakeRlugia said, the Napoleon code could have this effect, to avoid dismembering the inheritance too much.

Some historians thinks it's because of the dechristianisation of the society.

Others thinks the higher class followed Malthus, and later the lesser classes imitate them.

Also the beginning of contraception methods.
 
I do find it interesting that France had such a low birth rate, yet Quebec was booming and terrifying the anglo-Canadians with its significant natural growth rates. What caused such a major difference?
 
A lesser impact in French society about the losses during WW1, I think. Perhaps, over-population in France too, which could led to more people going to the colonies.

It could make enable France to field a larger army and have a larger industrial base as well. WWI could go very differently.
 
That's is not true no link have been made between Napoleon code and french birthrate decline if it was the case all country who have adopted it would have the same decline furthermore you could still write a will to deal with inheritance...

I never include Napoleon was the big reason; just that the birth practices already existed and France was about to enter a decline anyways.
 
I do find it interesting that France had such a low birth rate, yet Quebec was booming and terrifying the anglo-Canadians with its significant natural growth rates. What caused such a major difference?

Québec's high birthrate was probably in large part due to the Conquest, to the point where in French it's called the "revenge of the cradles". However, historically in a rural society the birthrate had to be high so that there would be some help in the fields in the form of (male) children, in part because of high infant mortality rates. Whilst there was some of that motivation in Québec, the Conquest had to be a huge factor (later sanctified by the Catholic Church, for which once Québec secularized in the 1960s the birthrate dropped dramatically).
 

BlondieBC

Banned
Outside the "hows", what might have happened "if" France had grown at a faster rate?

France has to import a lot more food, so there will be drive to secure this supply (more settler food growing colonies).

France will export a lot more settlers to its colonies and other colonies. So things like Algeria still being a part of France is likely.

France is more powerful militarily, and this will quickly butterfly away OTL.
 
Top