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I was reading through this thread, and it made me wonder why Henri III didn't just try to be King of both France and the Poland in personal union. He could have spent most of his time in France, where he would actually have power, whilst the Polish nobles might well have been happy to have an absentee monarch. It's not as if territorially non-contiguous personal unions were unknown at the time - look at the ex-Burgundian territories inherited by Philip II of Spain, or indeed the empire of his father Charles V, which was pretty much founded on personal unions.

Would this have been possible, and what effect would it have had on European politics, with Habsburg and Valois realms now encircling each other (Spain and the HRE encircling France, and France and Poland encircling the HRE)?
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